Chemistry MC: December 2017

a. The equivalence point has been reached.
b. The end point has been reached.
c. The point of neutralization has been reached.
d. The titration has failed.

Answer: A

Acetic acid ionizes in water as follows: CH3COOH + H2O CH3COO-><- + H3O+ Fewer than 1% of ethanoic acid molecules are ionized at any instant. The acetate ion (CH3COO-) is therefore ____.

Acetic acid ionizes in water as follows:
CH3COOH + H2O CH3COO-><- + H3O+
Fewer than 1% of ethanoic acid molecules are ionized at any instant. The acetate ion (CH3COO-) is therefore ____.

a. a poor hydrogen-ion acceptor
b. a good hydrogen-ion acceptor
c. a poor hydrogen-ion donor
d. a good hydrogen-ion donor

Answer: B

What characterizes a strong acid or base?

a. polar covalent bonding
b. complete ionization in water
c. ionic bonding
d. presence of a hydroxide or hydrogen ion

Answer: B

Which of these solutions is the most basic?

a. [H+] = 1 × 10^-2M
b. [OH-] = 1 × 10^-4M
c. [H+] = 1 × 10^-11M
d. [OH-] = 1 × 10-13M

Answer: C

Which type of solution is one with a pH of 8?

a. acidic
b. basic
c. neutral
d. The type varies, depending on the solution.

Answer: B

In a neutral solution, the [H+] is ____.

a. 10^-14M
b. zero
c. 1 × 10^7M
d. equal to [OH-]

Answer: D

Which of the following represents a Brønsted-Lowry conjugate acid-base pair?

a. SO32 - and SO2
b. CO3
2 - and CO
c. H3O and H2
d. NH4+ and NH3

Answer: D

What are the acids in the following equilibrium reaction? CN-+ H2O HCN + OH-

What are the acids in the following equilibrium reaction?
CN-+ H2O HCN + OH-

a. CN-, H2O
b. H2O, HCN
c. CN-, OH-
d. H2O, OH-

Answer: B

In the reaction CO3^2- + H2O -><- HCO3^- + OH^-, the carbonate ion is acting as a(n) ____.

a. Arrhenius base
b. Arrhenius acid
c. Brønsted-Lowry base
d. Brønsted-Lowry acid

Answer: C

What type of acid is sulfuric acid?

a. monoprotic
b. diprotic
c. triprotic
d. none of the above

Answer: B

What is transferred between a conjugate acid-base pair?

a. an electron
b. a proton
c. a hydroxide ion
d. a hydronium ion

Answer: B

The formula of the hydrogen ion is often written as ____.

a. H2O+
b. OH+
c. H+
d. H4N+

Answer: C

Which of the following is a property of an acid?

a. sour taste
b. nonelectrolyte
c. strong color
d. unreactive

Answer: A

When an acid reacts with a base, what compounds are formed?

a. a salt only
b. water only
c. metal oxides only
d. a salt and water

Answer: D

In general, compounds formed from group 1 metals and hydroxide ions are

a. strong acids.
b. strong bases.
c. weak acids.
d. weak bases.

Answer: B

Which of the following dissociates entirely into metal ions and hydroxide ions in solution?

a. a strong acid
b. a strong base
c. a weak acid
d. a weak base

Answer: B

In solution, a weak acid produces

a. a mixture of molecules and ions.
b. all ions.
c. all molecules.
d. anions, but no hydronium ions.

Answer: A

Sulfuric acid is a strong acid. What is true about its conjugate base?

a. Its conjugate base is amphoteric.
b. Its conjugate base is strong.
c. Its conjugate base is weak.
d. No conclusion can be made regarding the strength of the conjugate base.

Answer: C

A chemical equation for the ionization of an acid uses a single arrow to the right (?) to separate the reactant and product sides of the equation. Which of the following is true?

a. The arrow does not indicate relative strength.
b. The ionizing acid is half ionized.
c. The ionizing acid is strong.
d. The ionizing acid is weak.

Answer: C

Acid A and acid B are of equal concentration and are tested with a conductivity apparatus. When the electrodes are placed in acid A, the bulb glows dimly. When they are placed in acid B, the bulb glows more brightly. Which of the following is true?

a. Acid A is stronger than acid B.
b. Acid B is stronger than acid A.
c. Acid A and acid B are of equal strength.
d. No comparison of strength can be made from the results

Answer: B

How can you express the rate of chemical reaction? Give an example.

Answer: the rate can be expressed as the amount of reactant changing per unit of time e.g. combustion/hour.

Which expression correctly describes activation energy in a chemical equation?

a. heat released during reaction
b. energy barrier between reactants and products
c. energy given off when reactants collide
d. total amount of energy consumed by the reaction

Answer: B

At what stage of a chemical reaction is chemical energy at its highest level?

a. when only reactants are present
b. when only products are present
c. when an activated complex exists
d. when the activated complex becomes a product

Answer: C

What does a chemical reaction rate measure?

a. the amount of reactant used
b. the energy change per unit of time
c. change in amount of reactant per unit of time
d. the amount of time needed for the reaction to come to completion

Answer: C

The amount of heat released by the complete burning of 1 mole of a substance is its

a. a specific heat
b. heat of combustion
c. heat capacity
d. heat of fusion

Answer: B

What three factors do you need to know in order to calculate the heat change of a chemical reaction in a calorimeter?

a. heat capacity of reactants, mass of material that absorbs the heat, temperature change
b. mass of reactants, mass of material that absorbs the heat, temperature change
c. heat capacity and mass of material that absorbs the heat, temperature change
d. heat capacity and mass of reactants in the chemical equation, temperature change

Answer: C

Calculate the energy required to produce 7 mold of Cl2O7 on the basis of the following balance equation.

2Cl2 (g) + 7O2 (g) + 130 kcal -> 2Cl2O7 (g)

a. 7.00 kcal
b. 65 kcal
c. 130 kcal
d. 455 kcal

Answer: D

What is the specific heat of a substance if 1560 cal are required to raise the temperature of a 312-g sample by 15 C?

a. 0.033 cal/gc
b. 0.33 cal/gc
c. 0.99 cal/gc
d. 1.33 cal/gc

Answer: B

What is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 200 g of aluminum by 10 C?

What is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 200 g of aluminum by 10 C? (specific heat of aluminum = 0.21 cal/(g)(C))

a. 420 cal
b. 4200 cal
c. 42000 cal
d. 420000 cal

Answer: A

What happens when energy is changes from one form to another?

a. some of the energy is lost entirely
b. all of the energy can be accounted for
c. a physical change to a substance occurs
d. all of the energy is changes to a useful form

Answer: B

How can energy change during a chemical reaction?

a. transfer of heat and/or work
b. increase in heat and/or destruction of matter
c. change in the mass of the reactants of thermal energy
d. increase or decrease in total energy of a system

Answer: A

How is thermal energy transferred between two injects that are different temperatures?

a. the object at a lower temperature pulls heat energy from the warmer object
b. heat flows from the warmer object to the cooler object until they reach the same temperature
c. heat flows from the object rhat has more thermal energy ti the ibject that has kess thermak energy
d. heat flows back and forth between the two ibjects until they reaxh the same temperature

Answer: B

What is the equilibrium constant for the following reaction?

C + O2 -><- CO2
a. (C)^2 (O2)^2 / (CO2)^2
b. (CO2) / (C)(O2)

Answer: B

In a equilibrium reaction that makes more moles of gas than it consumes, what is the effect of increasing the pressure?

a. the reaction makes more products
b. the reaction makes more reactants
c. the reaction is unchanged
d. the answer cannot be determined

Answer: B

Is sulfur dioxide and oxygen can be made into sulfur trioxide, what is the reverse reaction?

a. SO2 + 2SO3 -> 3S +4O2
b. 2SO2 + O2 -> 2SO3
c. SO3 + O2 -> SO5
d. 2SO3 -> 2SO2 + O2

Answer: D

Which statement is true for an equilibrium with a K(eq) of 1 x 10^8?

a. the products are favored
b. the reactants are favored
c. the reaction is spontaneous
d. the reaction is exothermic

Answer: A

The energy that is available to do work in a reaction is called ____.

a. heat
b. enthalpy
c. entropy
d. free energy

Answer: D

If a reaction has an equilibrium constant just greater than 1, what type of reaction is it?

a. irreversible
b. spontaneous
c. reversible, favoring products
d. reversible, favoring reactants

Answer: C

In a reaction (at equilibrium) that makes more moles of gas than it consumes, what is the effect in increasing the pressure?

a. The reaction makes more products.
b. The reaction makes more reactants.
c. The reaction is unchanged.
d. The answer cannot be determined.

Answer: B

In an endothermic reaction at equilibrium, what is the effect of raising the temperature?

a. The reaction makes more products.
b. The reaction makes more reactants.
c. The reaction is unchanged.
d. The answer cannot be determined.

Answer: A

What happens to a reaction at equilibrium when more reactant is added to the system?

a. The reaction makes more products.
b. the reaction makes more reactants
c. The reaction is unchanged.
d. The answer cannot be determined.

Answer: A

Consider the reaction N (g) 3H (g) 2NH (g). What is the effect of decreasing the volume on the contained gases?

a. The reaction shifts toward the product gas.
b. The system reacts by increasing the number of gas molecules.
c. The pressure on the gases decreases momentarily.
d. Ammonia is consumed in the reaction.

Answer: A

If a reaction is reversible, what are the relative amounts of reactant and product at the end of the reaction?

a. no reactant; all product
b. no product; all reactant
c. some product; some reactant
d. The relationship between reactants and products cannot be determined.

Answer: C

Which of the following substances act as catalysts in the body?

a. carbohydrates
b. nucleic acids
c. lipids nucleic acids
d. enzymes

Answer: D

The rate of a chemical reaction normally ____.

a. decreases as temperature increases
b. is slowed down by a catalyst
c. increases as reactant concentration increases
d. decreases as reactant concentration increases

Answer: C

A catalyst works by ____.

a. lowering the activation energy barrier
b. shifting the equilibrium position toward the products
c. changing the temperature of the reactants
d. changing the particle size of the reactants

What happens to a catalyst in a reaction?

a. it is unchanged
b. It is incorporated into the products.
c. It is incorporated into the reactants.
d. It evaporates away.

Answer: A

Why does a catalyst cause a reaction to proceed faster?

a. There are more collisions per second only.
b. The collisions occur with greater energy only.
c. The activation energy is lowered only.
d. There are more collisions per second and the collisions are of greater energy.

Answer: C

Why does a higher temperature cause a reaction to go faster?

a. There are more collisions per second only.
b. Collisions occur with greater energy only.
c. There are more collisions per second and the collisions are of greater energy.
d. There are more collisions per second or the collisions are of greater energy.

Answer: C

Activation energy is ____.

a. the heat released in a reaction
b. an energy barrier between reactants and products
c. the energy given off when reactants collide
d. generally very high for a reaction that takes place rapidly

Answer: B

At what stage of a reaction do atoms have the highest energy?

a. reactant stage
b. product stage
c. transition state stage
d. The stage of highest energy depends on the atom.

Answer: C

Which law can be used to calculate the number of moles of a contained gas?

a.
Boyle's law
b.
combined gas law
c.
ideal gas law
d.
Charles's law

Answer: C

How is the ideal gas law usually written?

a.
= R
b.
= nR
c.
PV = nRT
d.
P =

Answer: C

What does the ideal gas law allow a scientist to calculate that the other gas laws do not?

a.
number of moles
b.
pressure
c.
volume
d.
temperature

Answer: A

The combined gas law relates which of the following?

a.
pressure and volume only
b.
temperature and pressure only
c.
volume and temperature only
d.
temperature, pressure, and volume

Answer: D

In general, for a gas at a constant volume, ____.

a.
the pressure of the gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvins
b.
the volume of the gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvins
c.
the volume of the gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins
d.
the pressure of the gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins

Answer: D

As the temperature of a fixed volume of a gas increases, the pressure will ____.

a.
vary inversely
b.
decrease
c.
not change
d.
increase

Answer: D

When the volume and number of particles of a gas are constant, which of the following is also constant?

a.
the sum of the pressure and temperature in kelvins
b.
the difference of the pressure and temperature in kelvins
c.
the product of the pressure and temperature in kelvins
d.
the ratio of the pressure and temperature in kelvins

Answer: D

If a balloon is heated, what happens to the pressure of the air inside the balloon if the volume remains constant?

a.
It increases.
b.
It stays the same.
c.
It decreases.
d.
The change cannot be predicted.

Answer: A

If a balloon is heated, what happens to the volume of the air in the balloon if the pressure is constant?

a.
It increases.
b.
It stays the same.
c.
It decreases.
d.
The change cannot be predicted.

Answer: A

Charles's law states that ____.

a.
the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvins
b.
the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins
c.
the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins
d.
the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvins

Answer: B

When the temperature and number of particles of a gas are constant, which of the following is also constant?

a.
the sum of the pressure and volume
b.
the difference of the pressure and volume
c.
the product of the pressure and volume
d.
the ratio of the pressure and volume

Answer: C

Boyle's law states that ____.

a.
the volume of a gas varies inversely with pressure
b.
the volume of a gas varies directly with pressure
c.
the temperature of a gas varies inversely with pressure
d.
the temperature of a gas varies directly with pressure

Answer: A

The volume of a gas is reduced from 4 L to 0.5 L while the temperature is held constant. How does the gas pressure change?

a.
It increases by a factor of four.
b.
It decreases by a factor of eight.
c.
It increases by a factor of eight.
d.
It increases by a factor of two.

Answer: C

The volume of a gas is doubled while the temperature is held constant. How does the gas pressure change?

a.
It is reduced by one half.
b.
It does not change.
c.
It is doubled.
d.
It varies depending on the type of gas.

Answer: A

When the Kelvin temperature of an enclosed gas doubles, the particles of the gas ____.

a.
move faster
b.
strike the walls of the container with less force
c.
decrease in average kinetic energy
d.
decrease in volume

Answer: A

Why does air escape from a tire when the tire valve is opened?

a.
The pressure outside the tire is lower than the pressure inside the tire.
b.
The pressure outside the tire is greater than the pressure inside the tire.
c.
The temperature is higher outside the tire than inside the tire.
d.
There are more particles of air outside the tire than inside the tire.

Answer: A

If 4 moles of gas are added to a container that already holds 1 mole of gas, how will the pressure change inside the container?

a.
The pressure will be five times higher.
b.
The pressure will double.
c.
The pressure will be four times higher.
d.
The pressure will not change.

Answer: A

As the temperature of the gas in a balloon decreases, which of the following occurs?

a.
The volume of the balloon increases.
b.
The average kinetic energy of the gas decreases.
c.
The gas pressure inside the balloon increases.
d.
all of the above

Answer: B

What happens to the temperature of a gas when it is compressed?

a.
The temperature increases.
b.
The temperature does not change.
c.
The temperature decreases.
d.
The temperature becomes unpredictable.

Answer: A

If a balloon is squeezed, what happens to the pressure of the gas inside the balloon?

a.
It increases.
b.
It stays the same.
c.
It decreases.
d.
The pressure depends on the type of gas in the balloon.

Answer: A

If the volume of a container of gas is reduced, what will happen to the pressure inside the container?

a.
The pressure will increase.
b.
The pressure will not change.
c.
The pressure will decrease.
d.
The pressure depends on the type of gas.

Answer: A

How does the gas propellant move when an aerosol can is used?

a.
from a region of high pressure to a region of lower pressure
b.
from a region of high pressure to a region of equally high pressure
c.
from a region of low pressure to a region of higher pressure
d.
from a region of low pressure to a region of equally low pressure

Answer: A

Why does the pressure inside a container of gas increase if more gas is added to the container?

a.
There is an increase in the number of collisions between particles and the walls of the container.
b.
There is an increase in the temperature of the gas.
c.
There is a decrease in the volume of the gas.
d.
There is an increase in the force of the collisions between the particles and the walls of the container.

Answer: A

Why is a gas easier to compress than a liquid or a solid?

a.
Its volume increases more under pressure than an equal volume of liquid does.
b.
Its volume increases more under pressure than an equal volume of solid does.
c.
The space between gas particles is much less than the space between liquid or solid particles.
d.
The volume of a gas's particles is small compared to the overall volume of the gas.

Answer: D

How are conditions of pressure and temperature, at which two phases coexist in equilibrium, shown on a phase diagram?

a. by a line separating the phases
b. by the endpoints of the line segment separating the phases
c. by the planar regions between lines in the diagram
d. by a triple point on the diagram

Answer: A

Which of the following is an example of a phase?

a. pressure
b. water vapor
c. temperature
d. triple point

Answer: B

The direct change of a substance from a solid to a gas is called ____.

a. evaporation
b. sublimation
c. condensation
d. solidification

Answer: B

Which of the following elements has the ability to undergo sublimation?

a. oxygen
b. carbon
c. sodium
d. iodine

Answer: D

The escape of molecules from the surface of a liquid is known as ____.

a. condensation
c. evaporation
b. boiling
d. sublimation

Answer: C

The normal boiling point of chloroform, which has a higher vapor pressure than water at 100C, is ____.

a. higher than the normal boiling point of water
b. lower than the normal boiling point of water
c. the same as the normal boiling point of water
d. unable to be measured

Answer: B

When the external pressure is 505 kPa, what is the vapor pressure of water at its boiling point?

a. 0 kPa
b. 101.3 kPa
c. 505 kPa
d. 1010 kPa

Answer: C

Water could be made to boil at 105C instead of 100C by ____.

a. adding a lot of energy to the water
b. increasing the external pressure
c. decreasing the external pressure
d. taking the sample to a higher altitude

Answer: B

What is the pressure when a liquid is boiling at its normal boiling point?

a. 0 kPa
b. 101.3 kPa
c. 202 kPa
d. 505 kPa

Answer: B

When the vapor pressure of a liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure, the liquid ____.

a. has no observable changes.
b. boils vigorously.
c. evaporates.
d. begins to boil.

Answer: D

If energy is added to a boiling liquid, what happens to the temperature of the liquid?

a. It increases.
b. It decreases.
c. It does not change.
d. The change cannot be determined.

Answer: C

An increase in the temperature of a contained liquid ____.

a. has no effect on the kinetic energy of the liquid
b. causes the vapor pressure above the liquid to decrease
c. causes fewer particles to escape from the surface of the liquid
d. causes the vapor pressure above the liquid to increase

Answer: D

If a liquid is sealed in a container and kept at constant temperature, how does its vapor pressure change over time?

a. It continues to steadily increase.
b. It increases at first, then remains constant.
c. It increases at first, then decreases.
d. It continues to steadily decrease.

Answer: B

In a dynamic equilibrium between the liquid state and the gas state, what is true about the rate of evaporation?

a. It is greater than the rate of condensation.
b. It is less than the rate of condensation.
c. It is equal to the rate of condensation.
d. The rate of evaporation cannot be determined.

Answer: C

Which of the following will evaporate the fastest?

a. water at 0C
b. water at 20C
c. water at 40C
d. All samples will evaporate at the same rate.

Answer: C

Why does a liquid's rate of evaporation increase when the liquid is heated?

a. More molecules have enough energy to overcome the attractive forces holding them in the liquid.
b. The average kinetic energy of the liquid decreases.
c. The surface area of the liquid is reduced.
d. The potential energy of the liquid increases.

Answer: A

What happens to the rate of evaporation of a liquid as the liquid is cooled?

a. It increases.
b. It decreases.
c. It does not change.
d. The change cannot be determined.

Answer: B

Which are the first particles to evaporate from a liquid?

a. particles with the lowest kinetic energy
b. particles with the highest kinetic energy
c. particles below the surface of the liquid
d. All particles evaporate at the same rate.

Answer: B

What happens to the temperature of a liquid as it evaporates?

a. It increases.
b. It decreases.
c. It does not change.
d. The change cannot be determined.

Answer: B

Which states of matter can flow?

a. gases only
b. liquids only
c. gases and liquids only
d. gases, liquids, and solids

Answer: C

What is the key difference between a liquid and a gas?

a. intermolecular attractions
b. the ability to flow
c. average kinetic energy
d. the motion of their particles

Answer: A

The average kinetic energy of water molecules is greatest in ____.

a. steam at 100C
b. liquid water at 90C
c. liquid water at 373K
d. ice at 0C

Answer: A

Consider an iron cube and an aluminum cube. If the two cubes were at the same temperature, how would the average kinetic energy of the particles in iron compare with the average kinetic energy of the particles in aluminum?

a. The average kinetic energy of the iron particles would be greater.
b. The average kinetic energy of the aluminum particles would be greater.
c. There would be no difference in the average kinetic energies.
d. No determination can be made based on the information given.

Answer: C

When a gas is heated, ____.

a. all of the absorbed energy is converted to kinetic energy
b. some of the absorbed energy is converted to potential energy, and some is converted to kinetic energy
c. all of the absorbed energy is converted to potential energy
d. none of the energy is converted to kinetic energy

Answer: B

The average kinetic energy of the particles of a substance ____.

a. is not affected by the temperature of the substance
b. increases as the temperature of the substance is lowered
c. is directly proportional to the temperature of the substance
d. is equal to the total energy absorbed by the substance

Answer: C

What happens to the range of energies of the particles in matter when the temperature is increased?

a. The range of energies becomes narrower.
b. The range of energies becomes broader.
c. The range of energies does not change.
d. The range of energies cannot be determined.

Answer: B

With which temperature scale is temperature directly proportional to average kinetic energy?

a. Celsius
c. Kelvin
b. Fahrenheit
d. centigrade

Answer: C

What happens to the average kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of matter as the temperature of the sample is increased?

a. The average kinetic energy decreases.
b. The average kinetic energy increases.
c. The average kinetic energy does not change.
d. The change in average kinetic energy cannot be determined.

Answer: B

The temperature at which the motion of particles theoretically ceases is ____.

a. -273 K
b. 0 K
c. 0C
d. 273C

Answer: B

The pressure of a gas in a container is 152 mm Hg. This is equivalent to ____.

a. 0.2 atm
b. 2 atm
c. 0.3 atm
d. 0.4 atm

Answer: A

What causes gas pressure in a container such as a helium balloon?

a. the walls of the container
b. the vacuum maintained in the container
c. the simultaneous collisions of fast-moving particles in the container
d. atmospheric pressure acting on the outside walls of the container

Answer: C

How does the atmospheric pressure at altitudes below sea level compare with atmospheric pressure at sea level?

a. The atmospheric pressure below sea level is higher.
b. The atmospheric pressure below sea level is lower.
c. The pressures are the same.
d. Differences in pressures cannot be determined.

Answer: A

Standard conditions when working with gases are defined as ____.

a. 0 K and 101.3 kPa
b. 0 K and 1 kPa
c. 0C and 101.3 kPa
d. 0C and 1 kPa

Answer: C

What is one standard atmosphere of pressure in kilopascals?

a. 0 kPa
b. 760 kPa
c. 101.3 kPa
d. 1 kPa

Answer: C

What is the SI unit of pressure?

a. candela
b. mole
c. pascal
d. newton

Answer: C

What instrument is normally used to measure atmospheric pressure?

a. thermometer
b. barometer
c. vacuum
d. manometer

Answer: B

Which of the following statements is NOT true about the movement of particles in a gas?

a. Particles travel in straight-line paths until they collide with other objects.
b. Particles usually travel uninterrupted indefinitely.
c. Particles fill their containers regardless of the shape or volume of the container.
d. The aimless path taken by particles is known as a random walk.

Answer: B

Particles in a gas are best described as ____.

a. slow-moving, kinetic, hard spheres
b. spheres that are in fixed positions when trapped in a container
c. small, hard spheres with insignificant volumes
d. hard spheres influenced by repulsive forces from other spheres

Answer: C

Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the kinetic theory?

a. There is no attraction between particles of a gas.
b. Only particles of matter in the gaseous state are in constant motion.
c. The particles of a gas collide with each other and with other objects.
d. All of the statements are true.

Answer: B

The average speed of oxygen molecules in air is about ____.

a. 0 km/h
b. 170 km/h
c. 1700 km/h
d. 17,000 km/h

Answer: C

Which of the following statements is part of the kinetic theory?

a. The particles of a gas move independently of each other.
b. The particles in a gas move rapidly.
c. The particles in a gas are relatively far apart.
d. all of the above

Answer: D

According to the kinetic theory, collisions between molecules in a gas ____.

a. are perfectly elastic
b. are inelastic
c. never occur
d. cause a loss of total kinetic energy

Answer: A

In a particular reaction between copper metal and silver nitrate, 12.7 g Cu produced 38.1 g Ag. What is the percent yield of silver in this reaction?

Cu + 2AgNO3 -> Cu(NO3 )2 + 2Ag

a. 56.7%
b. 77.3%
c. 88.2%
d. 176%

Answer: C

Hydrogen gas is produced when zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid. If the actual yield of this reaction is 85%, how many grams of zinc are needed to produce 112 L of H2 at STP?

Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) -> ZnCl2 (s) + H2 (g)

a. 95 g
b. 180 g
c. 280 g
d. 380 g

Answer: D

Lead nitrate can be decomposed by heating. What is the percent yield of the decomposition reaction if 9.9 g Pb(NO3 )2 are heated to give 5.5 g of PbO?

2Pb(NO3 )2 (s) -> 2PbO(s) + 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g)

a. 44%
b. 56%
c. 67%
d. 82%

Answer: D

Which of the following is NOT a reason why actual yield is less than theoretical yield?

a. impure reactants present
b. competing side reactions
c. loss of product during purification
d. conservation of mass

Answer: D

Which of the following is NOT true about "yield"?

a. The value of the actual yield must be given in order for the percent yield to be calculated.
b. The percent yield is the ratio of the actual yield to the theoretical yield.
c. The actual yield may be different from the theoretical yield because reactions do not always go to completion.
d. The actual yield may be different from the theoretical yield because insufficient limiting reagent was used.

Answer: D

When an equation is used to calculate the amount of product that will form during a reaction, then the value obtained is called the ____.

a. actual yield
b. percent yield
c. theoretical yield
d. minimum yield

Answer: C

Which of the following would be the limiting reagent in the reaction shown below? 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) -> 2H2 O(g)

Which of the following would be the limiting reagent in the reaction shown below?
2H2 (g) + O2 (g) -> 2H2 O(g)

a. 50 molecules of H2
b. 50 molecules of O2
c. Neither a nor b is limiting.
d. Both a and b are considered limiting reagents.

Answer: B

Which statement is true if 12 mol CO and 12 mol Fe O are allowed to react?

3CO(g) + Fe2 O3 (s) 2Fe(s) + 3CO2 (g)

a. The limiting reagent is CO and 8.0 mol Fe will be formed.
b. The limiting reagent is CO and 3.0 mol CO2 will be formed.
c. The limiting reagent is Fe2 O3 and 24 mol Fe will be formed.
d. The limiting reagent is Fe2 O3 and 36 mol CO2 will be formed.

Answer: A

Metallic copper is formed when aluminum reacts with copper(II) sulfate. How many grams of metallic copper can be obtained when 54.0 g of Al react with 319 g of CuSO4 ?

Al + 3CuSO4 -> Al2 (SO4 )3 + 3Cu

a. 21.2 g
b. 127 g
c. 162 g
d. 381 g

Answer: B

Methane and hydrogen sulfide form when hydrogen reacts with carbon disulfide. Identify the excess reagent and calculate how much remains after 36 L of H2 reacts with 12 L of CS2 .

4H2 (g) + CS2 (g) -> CH4 (g) + 2H2 S(g)

a. 3 L CS
b. 6 L CS
c. 9 L CS
d. 12 L H

Answer: A

What is the maximum number of grams of PH3 that can be formed when 6.2 g of phosphorus reacts with 4.0 g of hydrogen to form PH3 ? P4 (g) + 6H2 (g) -> 4PH3 (g)

What is the maximum number of grams of PH3 that can be formed when 6.2 g of phosphorus reacts with 4.0 g of hydrogen to form PH3 ?
P4 (g) + 6H2 (g) -> 4PH3 (g)

a. 0.43 g
b. 6.8 g
c. 270 g
d. 45 g

Answer: B

Identify the limiting reagent and the volume of CO formed when 11 L CS reacts with 18 L O to produce CO2 gas and SO2 gas at STP. CS2 (g) + 3O2 (g) -> CO2 (g) + 2SO2 (g)

Identify the limiting reagent and the volume of CO formed when 11 L CS reacts with 18 L O to produce CO2 gas and SO2 gas at STP.
CS2 (g) + 3O2 (g) -> CO2 (g) + 2SO2 (g)

a. CS2 ; 5.5 L CO2
b. O2 ; 6.0 L CO2
c. CS2 ; 11 L CO2
d. O2 ; 27 L CO2

Answer: B

How many liters of chlorine gas can be produced when 0.98 L of HCl react with excess O2 at STP? 4HCl(g) + O2 (g) -> 2Cl2 (g) + 2H2 O(g)

How many liters of chlorine gas can be produced when 0.98 L of HCl react with excess O2 at STP?
4HCl(g) + O2 (g) -> 2Cl2 (g) + 2H2 O(g)

a. 0.98 L
b. 0.49 L
c. 3.9 L
d. 2.0 L

Answer: B

How many liters of NH , at STP, will react with 5.3 g O2 to form NO2 and water? 4NH3 (g) + 7O2 (g) -> 4NO2 + 6H2 O(g)

How many liters of NH , at STP, will react with 5.3 g O2 to form NO2 and water?
4NH3 (g) + 7O2 (g) -> 4NO2 + 6H2 O(g)

a. 0.004 23 L
b. 2.12 L
c. 3.03 L
d. 6.49 L

Answer: B

How many grams of beryllium are needed to produce 36.0 g of hydrogen? (Assume an excess of water.)

Be(s) + 2H2 O(l) -> Be(OH)2 (aq) + H2 (g)

a. 4.00 g
b. 36.0 g
c. 162 g
d. 324 g

Answer: C

How many grams of chromium are needed to react with an excess of CuSO4 to produce 27.0 g Cu?

2Cr(s) + 3CuSO4 (aq) -> Cr2 (SO4 )3 (aq) + 3Cu(s)

a. 14.7 g
b. 18.0 g
c. 33.2 g
d. 81.5 g

Answer: A

Which of the following is NOT true about limiting and excess reagents?

a. The amount of product obtained is determined by the limiting reagent.
b. A balanced equation is necessary to determine which reactant is the limiting reagent.
c. Some of the excess reagent is left over after the reaction is complete.
d. The reactant that has the smallest given mass is the limiting reagent.

Answer: D

When two substances react to form products, the reactant which is used up is called the ____.

a. determining reagent
b. limiting reagent
c. excess reagent
d. catalytic reagent

Answer: B

Calcium oxide, or lime, is produced by the thermal decomposition of limestone in the reaction CaCO (s) ---> CaO(s) + CO2 (g). What mass of lime can be produced from 1.5 x 10 ^3 kg of limestone?

a. 8.4 x 10^5 kg
b. 8.4 x 10 ^2 kg
c. 8.4 kg
d. none of the above

Answer: B

Glucose, C6 H12 O6 , is a good source of food energy. When it reacts with oxygen, carbon dioxide and water are formed. How many liters of CO are produced when 126 g of glucose completely react with oxygen?

C6 H12 O6 (s) + 6O2 (g) 6CO2 (g) + 6H2 O(l) + 673 kcal

a. 4.21 L
b. 5.33 L
c. 15.7 L
d. 94.1 L

Answer: D

When 0.1 mol of calcium reacts with 880 g of water, 2.24 L of hydrogen gas form (at STP). How would the amount of hydrogen produced change if the volume of water was decreased to 440 mL (440 g)?

a. Only one half the volume of hydrogen would be produced.
b. The volume of hydrogen produced would be the same.
c. The volume of hydrogen produced would double.
d. No hydrogen would be produced.

Answer: B

How many liters of NH are needed to react completely with 30.0 L of NO (at STP)?

4NH3 (g) + 6NO(g) ? 5N2 (g) + 6H2 O(g)

a. 5.0 L
b. 20.0 L
c. 7.5 L
d. 120.0

Answer: B

Which of the following statements is true about the following reaction?

3NaHCO3 (aq) + C6 H8 O7 (aq) ? 3CO2 (g) + 3H2 O(s) +Na3 C6 H5 O7 (aq)

a. 22.4 L of CO (g) are produced for every liter of C6 H8 O7 (aq) reacted.
b. 1 mole of water is produced for every mole of carbon dioxide produced.
c. 6.02 10 molecules of Na3 C6 H5 O7 (aq) are produced for every mole of NaHCO3 (aq) used.
d. 54 g of water are produced for every mole of NaHCO3 (aq) produced.

Answer: B

Which conversion factor do you use first to calculate the number of grams of CO produced by the reaction of 50.6 g of CH with O ? The equation for the complete combustion of methane is:

CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) ? CO2 (g) + 2H2 O (l)

a. 1 mol CH /16.0 g CH
b. 2 mol O /1 mol CO
c. 16.0 g CH /1 mol CO
d. 44.0 g CO /2 mol CO

Answer: A

How many liters of hydrogen gas are needed to react with CS to produce 2.50 L of CH at STP?

4H2 (g) + CS2 (l) ? CH4 (g) +2h2 S (g)

a. 2.50 L
b. 5.00 L
c. 7.50 L
d. 10.0 L

Answer: D

How many grams of H PO are produced when 10.0 moles of water react with an excess of P O ?

P4 O10 (s) + 6H2 ? 4H3 PO4 (aq)

a. 1.22 g
b. 6.7 g
c. 147 g
d. 653 g

Answer: D

How many moles of H PO are produced when 71.0 g P O reacts completely to form H PO ?

P4 O10 (s) + 6H2 ? 4H3 PO4 (aq)

a. 0.063 5 mol
b. 1.00 mol
c. 4.00 mol
d. 16.0 mol

Answer: B

Mercury can be obtained by reacting mercury(II) sulfide with calcium oxide. How many grams of calcium oxide are needed to produce 36.0 g of Hg?

4HgS(s) + 4CaO(s) ? 4Hg(l) + 3CaS(s) + CaSO4

a. 1.80 g
b. 7.56 g
c. 10.1 g
d. 13.4 g

Answer: C

Aluminum reacts with sulfuric acid to produce aluminum sulfate and hydrogen gas. How many grams of aluminum sulfate would be formed if 250 g H SO completely reacted with aluminum?

2Al (s) + 3H2 SO4 (aq) ? Al2 (SO4 )3 (aq) + 3H2 (g)

a. 0.85 g
b. 290 g
c. 450 g
d. 870 g

Answer: B

When glucose is consumed, it reacts with oxygen in the body to produce carbon dioxide, water, and energy. How many grams of carbon dioxide would be produced if 45 g of C6 H 12 O6 completely reacted with oxygen?

a. 1.5 g
b. 1.8 g
c. 11 g
d. 66 g

Answer: D

Iron(III) oxide is formed when iron combines with oxygen in the air. How many grams of Fe O are formed when 16.7 g of Fe reacts completely with oxygen?

4Fe(s) + 3O2 (g) ? 2Fe2 O3 (s)

a. 12.0 g
b. 23.9 g
c. 47.8 g
d. 95.6 g

Answer: B

The equation below shows the decomposition of lead nitrate. How many grams of oxygen are produced when 11.5 g NO is formed?

2Pb(NO3 )2 (s) ? 2PBO(s) +4NO2 (g) O2 (g)

a. 1.00 g
b. 2.00 g
c. 2.88 g
d. 32.0 g

Answer: B

Which type of stoichiometric calculation does not require the use of the molar mass?

a. mass-mass problems
b. mass-volume problems
c. mass-particle problems
d. volume-volume problems

Answer: D

At STP, how many liters of oxygen are required to react completely with 3.6 liters of hydrogen to form water? 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) ? 2H2 O(g)

At STP, how many liters of oxygen are required to react completely with 3.6 liters of hydrogen to form water?
2H2 (g) + O2 (g) ? 2H2 O(g)

a. 1.8 L
b. 3.6 L
c. 2.0 L
d. 2.4 L

Answer: A

When iron rusts in air, iron(III) oxide is produced. How many moles of oxygen react with 2.4 mol of iron in the rusting reaction? 4Fe(s) + 3O2 (g) ? 2Fe2O3 (s)

When iron rusts in air, iron(III) oxide is produced. How many moles of oxygen react with 2.4 mol of iron in the rusting reaction?
4Fe(s) + 3O2 (g) ? 2Fe2O3 (s)

a. 1.2 mol
b. 1.8 mol
c. 2.4 mol
d. 3.2 mol

Answer: B

Hydrogen gas can be produced by reacting aluminum with sulfuric acid. How many moles of sulfuric acid are needed to completely react with 15.0 mol of aluminum? 2Al(s) + 3H2 SO4 (aq) ? Al2 (SO4 )3 (aq) + 3H2 (g)

Hydrogen gas can be produced by reacting aluminum with sulfuric acid. How many moles of sulfuric acid are needed to completely react with 15.0 mol of aluminum?
2Al(s) + 3H2 SO4 (aq) ? Al2 (SO4 )3 (aq) + 3H2 (g)

a. 0.100 mol
b. 10.0 mol
c. 15.0 mol
d. 22.5 mol

Answer: D

How many moles of glucose, C H O , can be "burned" biologically when 10.0 mol of oxygen is available? C6 H12 O6 (s) + 6O2 (g) ? 6CO2 (g) + 6H2 O(l)

How many moles of glucose, C H O , can be "burned" biologically when 10.0 mol of oxygen is available?
C6 H12 O6 (s) + 6O2 (g) ? 6CO2 (g) + 6H2 O(l)

a. 0.938 mol
b. 1.67 mol
c. 53.3 mol
d. 60.0 mol

Answer: B

Calculate the number of moles of Al O that are produced when 0.60 mol of Fe is produced in the following reaction. 2Al(s) + 3FeO(s) 3Fe(s) + Al2 O3 (s)

Calculate the number of moles of Al O that are produced when 0.60 mol of Fe is produced in the following reaction.
2Al(s) + 3FeO(s) 3Fe(s) + Al2 O3 (s)

a. 0.20 mol
b. 0.40 mol
c. 0.60 mol
d. 0.90 mol

Answer: A

How many moles of aluminum are needed to react completely with 1.2 mol of FeO? 2Al(s) + 3FeO(s) ? 3Fe(s) + Al2 O3 (s)

How many moles of aluminum are needed to react completely with 1.2 mol of FeO?
2Al(s) + 3FeO(s) ? 3Fe(s) + Al2 O3 (s)

a. 1.2 mol
b. 0.8 mol
c. 1.6 mol
d. 2.4 mol

Answer: B

At STP, how many liters of oxygen are required to react completely with 3.6 liters of hydrogen to form water? 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) ? 2H2 O(g)

At STP, how many liters of oxygen are required to react completely with 3.6 liters of hydrogen to form water?
2H2 (g) + O2 (g) ? 2H2 O(g)

a. 1.8 L
b. 3.6 L
c. 2.0 L
d. 2.4 L

Answer: A

Calculate the number of moles of Al O that are produced when 0.60 mol of Fe is produced in the following reaction. 2Al(s) + 3FeO(s) 3Fe(s) + Al2 O3 (s)

Calculate the number of moles of Al O that are produced when 0.60 mol of Fe is produced in the following reaction.
2Al(s) + 3FeO(s) 3Fe(s) + Al2 O3 (s)

a. 0.20 mol
b. 0.40 mol
c. 0.60 mol
d. 0.90 mol

Answer: A

How many moles of aluminum are needed to react completely with 1.2 mol of FeO? 2Al(s) + 3FeO(s) ? 3Fe(s) + Al2 O3 (s)

How many moles of aluminum are needed to react completely with 1.2 mol of FeO?
2Al(s) + 3FeO(s) ? 3Fe(s) + Al2 O3 (s)

a. 1.2 mol
b. 0.8 mol
c. 1.6 mol
d. 2.4 mol

Answer: B

Which of the following is an INCORRECT interpretation of the balanced equation shown below? 2S(s) + 3O2 (g) ? 2SO3 (g)

Which of the following is an INCORRECT interpretation of the balanced equation shown below?
2S(s) + 3O2 (g) ? 2SO3 (g)

a. 2 atoms S + 3 molecules O2 ? 2 molecules SO3
b. 2 g S + 3 g O2 ? 2 g SO3
c. 2 mol S + 3 mol O2 ? 2 mol SO3
d. none of the above

Answer: B

Which of the following is true about the total number of reactants and the total number of products in the reaction shown below? C5 H12 (l) + 8O2 (g) ? 5CO2 (g) + 6H2 O(g)

Which of the following is true about the total number of reactants and the total number of products in the reaction shown below?
C5 H12 (l) + 8O2 (g) ? 5CO2 (g) + 6H2 O(g)

a. 9 moles of reactants chemically change into 11 moles of product.
b. 9 grams of reactants chemically change into 11 grams of product.
c. 9 liters of reactants chemically change into 11 liters of product.
d. 9 atoms of reactants chemically change into 11 atoms of product.

Answer: A

In the reaction 2CO(g) + O2 (g) ? 2CO2 (g), what is the ratio of moles of oxygen used to moles of CO2 produced?

a. 1:1
b. 2:1
c. 1:2
d. 2:2

Answer: C

The first step in most stoichiometry problems is to ____.

a. add the coefficients of the reagents
b. convert given quantities to moles
c. convert given quantities to volumes
d. convert given quantities to masses

Answer: B

In any chemical reaction, the quantities that are preserved are ____.

a. the number of moles and the volumes
b. the number of molecules and the volumes
c. mass and number of atoms
d. mass and moles

Answer: C

In a chemical reaction, the mass of the products ____.

a. is less than the mass of the reactants
b. is greater than the mass of the reactants
c. is equal to the mass of the reactants
d. has no relationship to the mass of the reactants

Answer: C

In every chemical reaction, ____.

a. mass and molecules are conserved
b. moles and liters are conserved
c. mass and atoms are conserved
d. moles and molecules are conserved

Answer: C

What is conserved in the reaction shown below? N2 (g) + 3F2 (g) ? 2NF3 (g)

What is conserved in the reaction shown below?
N2 (g) + 3F2 (g) ? 2NF3 (g)

a. atoms only
b. mass only
c. mass and atoms only
d. moles only

Answer: C

What is conserved in the reaction shown below? H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) ? 2HCl(g)

What is conserved in the reaction shown below?
H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) ? 2HCl(g)

a. mass only
b. mass and moles only
c. mass, moles, and molecules only
d. mass, moles, molecules, and volume

Answer: D

If 1 egg and 1/3 cup of oil are needed for each bag of brownie mix, how many bags of brownie mix do you need if you want to use up all 3 eggs and 1 cup of oil?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Answer: C

The calculation of quantities in chemical equations is called ____.

a. stoichiometry
b. dimensional analysis
c. percent composition
d. percent yield

Answer: A

Continuous spectra are characteristic of molecules in the gas phase.

Answer: False

Continuous spectra are characteristic of heated solids.

Answer: True

Line spectra are characteristic of atoms in the gas phase.

Answer: True

The energy of a photon is directly proportional to the wavelength of the radiation.

Answer: False

Which of the atoms represented below is the largest in size?

A) N
B) As
C) Sb
D) Bi
E) P

Answer: D

How many core electrons are in a ground state atom of arsenic?

A) 15
B) 33
C) 28
D) 5
E) none of the above

Answer: C

Which one of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has a higher energy per photon than visible radiation?

A) microwave
B) ultraviolet
C) radio
D) infrared
E) none of the above

Answer: B

Which color of visible light has a wavelength in between that of blue and violet light?

A) green
B) yellow
C) red
D) indigo
E) none of the above

Answer: D

Which of the following atoms has the greatest metallic character?

A) Cs
B) Be
C) Cu
D) Ti
E) Au

Answer: A

Which of the following atoms has the least metallic character?

A) Li
B) Na
C) K
D) Rb
E) Cs

Answer: A

Which of the following atoms is the smallest?

A) Li
B) Be
C) B
D) O
E) Ne

Answer: E

Which of the following atoms is the largest?

A) Li
B) Na
C) K
D) Rb
E) Cs

Answer: E

Which of the following elements has the highest ionization energy?

A) Ba
B) Ca
C) Al
D) Cl
E) Ne

Answer: E

Which of the following elements has the lowest ionization energy?

A) Rb
B) Na
C) C
D) F
E) He

Answer: A

The size of an atom generally increases:

A) down a group and from right to left across a period.
B) up a group and from left to right across a period.
C) down a group and from left to right across a period.
D) up a group and from right to left across a period.
E) up a group and diagonally across the Periodic Table.

Answer: A

Choose the answer that best completes the following statement: When an aluminum atom reacts so as to attain a noble gas electron configuration,

A) the atom gains five electrons.
B) the result is a configuration of 1s22s22p6.
C) a 3- ion forms.
D) the noble gas configuration of argon is achieved.
E) none of the above

Answer: B

If the electron configuration of a ground state potassium atom is 1s22s22p63s1, the electron configuration of the potassium cation (K+) would be:

A) 1s22s22p63s2
B) 1s22s22p6
C) 1s22s22p63s1
D) 1s12s22p63s1
E) none of the above

Answer: B

Which one of the following species has the electron configuration of 1s22s22p6?

1. Na+
2. O^2-
3. F-

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All of 1, 2, and 3
E) Neither 1, 2, or 3

Answer: D

Consider the electron configuration of the ion to determine which ion shown below has an incorrect ionic charge?

A) Al^3-
B) Se^2-
C) Rb+
D) Ba^2+
E) none of the above

Answer: A

Chlorine and bromine have very similar chemical properties. This is best explained by the fact that both elements:

A) are gases.
B) are in period 3 of the Periodic Table.
C) have the same number of valence electrons.
D) have equal number of protons and electrons.
E) none of the above

Answer: C

Which of the following elements has the electron configuration of 3s23p4 in its outermost shell?

A) Al
B) Si
C) S
D) Cl
E) none of the above

Answer: C

What do the alkali metals all have in common?

A) They all undergo similar reactions.
B) They all have similar physical properties.
C) They all form +1 ions.
D) They all have the same number of valence electrons.
E) all of the above

Answer: E

How many valence electrons are in a chlorine atom?

A) 1
B) 17
C) 10
D) 7
E) none of the above

Answer: D

How many core electrons are in a chlorine atom?

A) 1
B) 17
C) 10
D) 7
E) none of the above

Answer: C

What is the element in which at least one electron is in the d-orbital?

A) Ar
B) K
C) Ca
D) Sc
E) none of the above

Answer: D

The element with a completely filled p-subshell is:

A) Na.
B) Al.
C) P.
D) Ar.
E) none of the above

Answer: D

What is the electron configuration for P?

A) [Ar]3s23p64s23d104p3
B) [Ne]1s21p62s22p3
C) [Ne]3s23p3
D) [Ar]3s23p3
E) none of the above

Answer: C

What is the electron configuration for Ga?

A) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p6
B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p1
C) 1s22s22p63s23p53d104s24p1
D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s24d104p1
E) none of the above

Answer: B

What is the electron configuration for Kr?

A) 1s22s22p63s23p43d104s24p6
B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d24p6
C) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p6
D) 1s22s22p63s23p24s23d104p6
E) none of the above

Answer: C

Which element is represented by the electron configuration 1s22s22p2?

A) C
B) He
C) Be
D) O
E) none of the above

Answer: A

An accepted abbreviation format is to write an electron configuration that includes a noble gas symbol in brackets. If you were writing an electron configuration for a bromine atom, which elemental symbol would you place in the bracket?

A) He
B) Ne
C) Ar
D) Kr
E) Xe

Answer: C

How many electrons are unpaired in the orbitals of nitrogen?

A) 14
B) 5
C) 9
D) 3
E) none of the above

Answer: D

How many electrons are unpaired in the orbitals of carbon?

A) 12
B) 6
C) 4
D) 2
E) none of the above

Answer: D

Which orbital would the electron of a ground state hydrogen atom occupy?

A) 1s
B) 2p
C) 0s
D) 1p
E) none of the above

Answer: A

The subshell that has five orbitals and can hold up to ten electrons is the:

A) d subshell
B) f subshell
C) s subshell
D) p subshell
E) none of the above

Answer: A

The subshell that has three orbitals and can hold up to six electrons is the:

A) s subshell
B) p subshell
C) d subshell
D) f subshell
E) none of the above

Answer: B

"When filling orbitals of equal energy, electrons fill them singly first with parallel spins." This is known as:

A) Hund's rule.
B) Pauli exclusion principle.
C) Bohr's model.
D) Ground state.
E) none of the above

Answer: A

The lowest energy orbital in the quantum-mechanical model is the:

A) zero orbital.
B) 1a orbital.
C) 1p orbital.
D) 1s orbital.
E) none of the above

Answer: D

How many electrons can exist in an orbital?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) none of the above

Answer: B

The "d" subshell can hold a maximum of ________ electrons.

A) 2
B) 5
C) 6
D) 10
E) none of the above

Answer: D

Which statement is NOT true about "p" orbitals?

A) A subshell contains three "p" orbitals.
B) These orbitals are shaped like dumbbells.
C) A 3p orbital has a higher energy than a 2p orbital.
D) All three of these statements are true.
E) none of the above

Answer: D

Which subshell letter corresponds to a 4-leaf clover orbital pattern?

A) s
B) p
C) d
D) f
E) not enough information

Answer: C

Which subshell letter corresponds to a spherical orbital?

A) s
B) p
C) d
D) f
E) not enough information

Answer: A

The n = ________ principal shell is the lowest that may contain a d-subshell.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) not enough information

Answer: C

How many subshells are there in the n = 2 principal shell?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) not enough information

Answer: B

How many subshells are there in the n = 4 principal shell?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) not enough information

Answer: D

The subshell letter:

A) specifies the 3-D shape of the orbital.
B) specifies the principal quantum number of the orbital.
C) specifies the maximum number of electrons.
D) specifies the principal shell of the orbital.
E) none of the above

Answer: A

The principal quantum number (n):

A) specifies the 3-D shape of the orbital.
B) specifies the subshell of the orbital.
C) specifies the maximum number of electrons.
D) specifies the principal shell of the orbital.
E) none of the above

Answer: D

Which of the following statements about the quantum-mechanical model is FALSE?

A) Orbitals are a probability map of finding electrons.
B) Electrons do not behave as particles.
C) Orbitals are specific paths electrons follow.
D) Electron paths cannot be described exactly
E) All of the above are correct statements.

Answer: C

Which statement below does NOT follow the Bohr Model?

A) When energy is absorbed by atoms, the electrons are promoted to higher-energy orbits.
B) When an atom emits light, electrons fall from a higher orbit into a lower orbit.
C) The energy emitted from a relaxing electron can have any wavelength.
D) Electrons exist in specific, quantized orbits.
E) none of the above

Answer: C

When neon light is passed through a prism, what is observed?

A) continuous spectrum
B) nothing
C) bright spots or lines
D) white light
E) none of the above

Answer: C

When sunlight is passed through a prism, what is observed?

A) continuous spectrum
B) nothing
C) bright spots and lines
D) white light
E) none of the above

Answer: A

What happens to an atom when it absorbs energy?

A) The atom stores the energy for later use.
B) The extra energy increases the speed of the electrons in their orbitals.
C) The atom re-emits the energy as heat.
D) The atom re-emits the energy as light.
E) none of the above

Answer: D