How many of the following molecules have sp3d hybridization on the central atom? SiCl4 BrF5 AsF5 BrF3

How many of the following molecules have sp3d hybridization on the central atom?
SiCl4 BrF5 AsF5 BrF3

A) 2
B) 0
C) 4
D) 1
E) 3

How many of the following molecules have sp3 hybridization on the central atom? XeCl4 CH4 SF4 C2H2

How many of the following molecules have sp3 hybridization on the central atom?
XeCl4 CH4 SF4 C2H2

A) 0
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
E) 1


Answer: E

How many of the following molecules have sp hybridization on the central atom? C2Cl2 CO2 O3 H2O

How many of the following molecules have sp hybridization on the central atom?
C2Cl2 CO2 O3 H2O

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4


Answer: C

Consider the molecule below. Determine the hybridization at each of the 3 labeled atoms.

Consider the molecule below. Determine the hybridization at each of the 3 labeled atoms.

A) 1=sp2, 2=sp3, 3=sp2
B) 1=sp2, 2=sp3, 3=sp3
C) 1=sp3, 2=sp3, 3=sp3
D) 1=sp3, 2=sp3, 3=sp2
E) 1=sp, 2=sp2, 3=sp2


Answer: B

Consider the molecule below. Determine the hybridization at each of the 2 labeled carbons.

Consider the molecule below. Determine the hybridization at each of the 2 labeled carbons.

A) C1 = sp3, C2 = sp3d
B) C1 = sp, C2 = sp2
C) C1 = sp2, C2 = sp3d
D) C1 = sp3d, C2 = sp3d2
E) C1 = sp2, C2 = sp3


Answer: E

Draw the Lewis structure for BrCl3. What is the hybridization on the Br atom?

Draw the Lewis structure for BrCl3. What is the hybridization on the Br atom?

A) sp3d2
B) sp3d
C) sp3
D) sp2
E) sp


Answer: B

Draw the Lewis structure for BrF5. What is the hybridization on the Br atom?

Draw the Lewis structure for BrF5. What is the hybridization on the Br atom?

A) sp3d2
B) sp3d
C) sp3
D) sp2
E) sp


Answer: A

Draw the Lewis structure for SF6. What is the hybridization on the S atom?

Draw the Lewis structure for SF6. What is the hybridization on the S atom?

A) sp
B) sp2
C) sp3
D) sp3d
E) sp3d2


Answer: E

Draw the Lewis structure for BrO4?. What is the hybridization on the Br atom?

Draw the Lewis structure for BrO4?. What is the hybridization on the Br atom?

A) sp
B) sp3d2
C) sp3d
D) sp3
E) sp2


Answer: D

Draw the Lewis structure for SO3. What is the hybridization on the S atom?

Draw the Lewis structure for SO3. What is the hybridization on the S atom?

A) sp
B) sp3
C) sp2
D) sp3d
E) sp3d2


Answer: C

Draw the Lewis structure for OF2. What is the hybridization on the O atom?

Draw the Lewis structure for OF2. What is the hybridization on the O atom?

A) sp
B) sp3
C) sp2
D) sp3d
E) sp3d2


Answer: B

A molecule containing a central atom with sp3d2 hybridization has a(n) __________ electron geometry.

A molecule containing a central atom with sp3d2 hybridization has a(n) __________ electron geometry.

A) octahedral
B) trigonal bipyramidal
C) tetrahedral
D) trigonal planar
E) trigonal pyramidal


Answer: A

Identify the shape that goes with sp3d.

Identify the shape that goes with sp3d.

A) trigonal bipyramidal
B) octahedral
C) tetrahedral
D) trigonal planar


Answer: A

Identify the number of electron groups around a molecule with a tetrahedral shape.

Identify the number of electron groups around a molecule with a tetrahedral shape.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4


Answer: D

A molecule containing a central atom with sp3d hybridization has a(n) __________ electron geometry.

A molecule containing a central atom with sp3d hybridization has a(n) __________ electron geometry.

A) tetrahedral
B) linear
C) octahedral
D) trigonal planar
E) trigonal bipyramidal


Answer: E

A molecule containing a central atom with sp3 hybridization has a(n) __________ electron geometry.

A molecule containing a central atom with sp3 hybridization has a(n) __________ electron geometry.

A) linear
B) trigonal bipyramidal
C) octahedral
D) tetrahedral
E) bent


Answer: D

Determine the electron geometry, molecular geometry, and polarity of N2O (N central).

Determine the electron geometry, molecular geometry, and polarity of N2O (N central).

A) eg=linear, mg=linear, nonpolar
B) eg=tetrahedral, mg=linear, nonpolar
C) eg=tetrahedral, mg=bent, polar
D) eg= linear, mg=linear, polar
E) eg=trigonal planar, mg=bent, polar


Answer: D

Place the following in order of decreasing dipole moment. I. cis-CHCl=CHCl II. trans-CHCl=CHCI III. cis-CHF=CHF

Place the following in order of decreasing dipole moment.
I. cis-CHCl=CHCl II. trans-CHCl=CHCI III. cis-CHF=CHF

A) III > I > II
B) II > I > III
C) I > III > II
D) II > III > I
E) I = III > II


Answer: A

Place the following in order of increasing dipole moment. I. BCl3 II. BIF2 III. BClF2

Place the following in order of increasing dipole moment.
I. BCl3 II. BIF2 III. BClF2

A) I < II = III
B) II < III < I
C) I < II < III
D) II < I < III
E) I < III < II


Answer: E

Choose the compound below that contains at least one polar covalent bond, but is nonpolar.

Choose the compound below that contains at least one polar covalent bond, but is nonpolar.

A) GeH2Br2
B) SCl2
C) AsCl5
D) CF2Cl2
E) All of the above are nonpolar and contain a polar covalent bond.


Answer: C

Determine the electron geometry, molecular geometry, and polarity of HBrO2.

Determine the electron geometry, molecular geometry, and polarity of HBrO2.

A) eg=trigonal bipyramidal, mg=trigonal planar, nonpolar
B) eg=octahedral, mg=square planar, nonpolar
C) eg=tetrahedral, mg=bent, polar
D) eg=tetrahedral, mg=linear, nonpolar
E) eg=linear, mg=linear, polar


Answer: C

Determine the electron geometry (eg), molecular geometry(mg) and polarity of XeO3.

Determine the electron geometry (eg), molecular geometry(mg) and polarity of XeO3.

A) eg=trigonal planar, mg=trigonal planar, nonpolar
B) eg=tetrahedral, mg=trigonal pyramidal, polar
C) eg=trigonal planar, mg=trigonal pyramidal, polar
D) eg=trigonal bipyramidal, mg=trigonal planar, nonpolar
E) eg=octahedral, mg=tetrahedral, nonpolar


Answer: B

Determine the electron geometry, molecular geometry, and polarity of TeCl6.

Determine the electron geometry, molecular geometry, and polarity of TeCl6.

A) eg=octahedral, mg=octahedral, nonpolar
B) eg=trigonal bipyramidal, mg=trigonal bipyramidal, nonpolar
C) eg=octahedral, mg=square planar, polar
D) eg=trigonal bipyramidal, mg=see-saw, polar
E) eg=tetrahedral, mg=trigonal pyramidal, polar


Answer: A

Determine the electron geometry, molecular geometry, and polarity of SF6.

Determine the electron geometry, molecular geometry, and polarity of SF6.

A) eg=trigonal bipyramidal, mg=trigonal bipyramidal, nonpolar
B) eg=tetrahedral, mg=tetrahedral, polar
C) eg=trigonal bipyramidal, mg=see-saw, polar
D) eg=octahedral, mg=trigonal bipyramidal, nonpolar
E) eg=octahedral, mg=octahedral, nonpolar


Answer: E

Determine the electron geometry (eg), molecular geometry (mg), and polarity of SO2.

Determine the electron geometry (eg), molecular geometry (mg), and polarity of SO2.

A) eg=tetrahedral, mg=bent, polar
B) eg=trigonal planar, mg=bent, polar
C) eg=linear, mg=linear, nonpolar
D) eg=tetrahedral, mg=tetrahedral, nonpolar
E) eg=trigonal pyramidal, mg=trigonal pyramidal, polar


Answer: B

How many of the following molecules are polar? PCl5 COS XeO3 SeBr2

How many of the following molecules are polar?
PCl5 COS XeO3 SeBr2

A) 2
B) 0
C) 1
D) 3
E) 4


Answer: D

How many of the following molecules are polar? XeO2 SiCl2Br2 C2Br2 SeCl6

How many of the following molecules are polar?
XeO2 SiCl2Br2 C2Br2 SeCl6

A) 1
B) 4
C) 2
D) 3
E) 0


Answer: C

How many of the following molecules are polar? XeCl2 COF2 PCl4F SF6

How many of the following molecules are polar?
XeCl2 COF2 PCl4F SF6

A) 0
B) 3
C) 1
D) 2
E) 4


Answer: B

How many of the following molecules are polar? BrCl3 CS2 SiF4 SO3

How many of the following molecules are polar?
BrCl3 CS2 SiF4 SO3

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 0


Answer: A

Determine the electron geometry (eg), molecular geometry (mg), and polarity of SO3.

Determine the electron geometry (eg), molecular geometry (mg), and polarity of SO3.

A) eg=tetrahedral, mg=trigonal pyramidal, polar
B) eg=tetrahedral, mg=tetrahedral, nonpolar
C) eg=trigonal planar, mg=trigonal planar, nonpolar
D) eg= trigonal bipyramidal, mg=trigonal planar, polar
E) eg=trigonal pyramidal, mg=bent, nonpolar


Answer: C

Place the following in order of increasing X-A-X bond angle, where A represents the central atom and X represents the outer atoms in each molecule. HCN H2O H3O?

Place the following in order of increasing X-A-X bond angle, where A represents the central atom and X represents the outer atoms in each molecule.
HCN H2O H3O?

A) H2O < H3O? < HCN
B) H3O? < H2O < HCN
C) HCN < H3O? < H2O
D) H2O < HCN < H3O?
E) H2O < H3O? < HCN


Answer: E

Place the following in order of decreasing X-A-X bond angle, where A represents the central atom and X represents the outer atoms in each molecule. CS2 CF4 SCl2

Place the following in order of decreasing X-A-X bond angle, where A represents the central atom and X represents the outer atoms in each molecule.

CS2 CF4 SCl2

A) CS2 = SCl2 > CF4
B) SCl2 > CF4 > CS2
C) CF4 > CS2 > SCl2
D) CS2 > CF4 > SCl2
E) CF4 > CS2 > SCl2


Answer: D

Place the following in order of decreasing X-A-X bond angle, where A represents the central atom and X represents the outer atoms in each molecule. N2O NCl3 NO2?

Place the following in order of decreasing X-A-X bond angle, where A represents the central atom and X represents the outer atoms in each molecule.

N2O NCl3 NO2?

A) NCl3 > NO2? > N2O
B) NO2? > N2O > NCl3
C) N2O > NO2? > NCl3
D) NCl3 > N2O > NO2?
E) N2O > NCl3 > NO2?


Answer: C

Place the following in order of increasing F-A-F bond angle, where A represents the central atom in each molecule. PF3 OF2 PF4?

Place the following in order of increasing F-A-F bond angle, where A represents the central atom in each molecule.
PF3 OF2 PF4?

A) PF3 < OF2 < PF4?
B) OF2 < PF3 < PF4?
C) OF2 < PF4? < PF3
D) PF4? < OF2 < PF3
E) PF4? < PF3 < OF2


Answer: B

Place the following in order of increasing X-Se-X bond angle, where X represents the outer atoms in each molecule. SeO2 SeCl6 SeF2

Place the following in order of increasing X-Se-X bond angle, where X represents the outer atoms in each molecule.
SeO2 SeCl6 SeF2

A) SeCl6 < SeF2 < SeO2
B) SeF2 < SeO2 < SeCl6
C) SeF2 < SeCl6 < SeO2
D) SeO2 < SeF2 < SeCl6
E) SeCl6 < SeO2 < SeF2


Answer: A

Which one of these is NOT in the process of creating nuclear power?

Which one of these is NOT in the process of creating nuclear power?

A. The fission of uranium atoms releases energy that heats water
B. Hot water spins turbines that are connected to generators
C. The chain reaction is controlled with "control rods" that absorb protons
D. Neutrons from uranium collide with other atoms creating a chain reaction


Answer: C

A nuclear fission chain reaction produces all of the following except

A nuclear fission chain reaction produces all of the following except

A. Extra neutrons that are split away from a nucleus
B. Smaller atoms
C. Protons that split other atoms
D. All of the above are produced


Answer: C

What is the largest nuclear power plant ?

What is the largest nuclear power plant ?

A. Kashiwazaki-Kariwa Nuclear Power Plant
B. Bruce Nuclear Generating Station
C. Qinshan Nuclear Power Plant
D. Saudi Arabia's nuclear ambitions


Answer: A

Which is not an advantage of nuclear energy?

Which is not an advantage of nuclear energy?

A. Low Operating costs
B. Radioactive waste disposal
C. Low pollution
D. Abundant supply of Uranium


Answer: B

Is nuclear energy sustainable?

Is nuclear energy sustainable?

A. True
B. False


Answer: B

What is the most common element used to power a nuclear reactor?

What is the most common element used to power a nuclear reactor?

A. Plutonium
B. Xenon
C. Radium
D. Uranium


Answer: D

What states produce the most uranium in the US?

What states produce the most uranium in the US?

A. California
B. Florida
C. West Virginia
D. Wyoming and the Four Corners area


Answer: D

What process do current nuclear reactor use to produce energy?

What process do current nuclear reactor use to produce energy?

A. Fusion
B. Fission
C. Neither
D. Both


Answer: B

Nuclear power produces about what percentage of the world's needs?

Nuclear power produces about what percentage of the world's needs?

A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 30%
D. 50%


Answer: B

Nuclear power is generated using which of the following?

Nuclear power is generated using which of the following?

A. Uranium
B. Hydrogen
C. Carbon
D. none of the above


Answer: B

Which controls the rate of reaction in nuclear power plants, and stops a nuclear reaction in blackouts in cases?

Which controls the rate of reaction in nuclear power plants, and stops a nuclear reaction in blackouts in cases? 

A. Control Rods
B. Hydroxide
C. Steam
D. More Uranium


Answer: A

The time taken for a radioactive element to reduce to 50% of its original mass is __________ years, if its half life period is 12 years.

The time taken for a radioactive element to reduce to 50% of its original mass is __________ years, if its half life period is 12 years.

A. 48
B. 12
C. 6
D. 24


Answer: B

How long does it take to eliminate the radioactivity of nuclear waste?

How long does it take to eliminate the radioactivity of nuclear waste?

A. Seconds
B. Minutes
C. Hours
D. Years


Answer: D

Which fuel is being considered to also be used in Nuclear Power Plants instead of just Uranium?

Which fuel is being considered to also be used in Nuclear Power Plants instead of just Uranium?

A. Coal
B. Thorium
C. Neptunium
D. Silver


Answer: B

When fossil fuels are burned, the carbon to ____ bonds break to generate energy.

When fossil fuels are burned, the carbon to ____ bonds break to generate energy. 

A. Nitrogen
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen


Answer: B

What type of reaction occurs in the use of fossil fuels for energy?

What type of reaction occurs in the use of fossil fuels for energy?

A. Single replacement
B. Double replacement
C. Combustion
D. Synthesis


Answer: C

Which method generates the most energy in for American consumers?

Which method generates the most energy in for American consumers?

A. Solar energy
B. Wind energy
C. Hydroelectric energy
D. Fossil Fuels


Answer: D

What source energy produces the most greenhouse gas?

What source energy produces the most greenhouse gas? 

A. Solar energy
B. Wind energy
C. Hydroelectric energy
D. Fossil Fuels


Answer: D

Which energy source is the most reliable?

Which energy source is the most reliable?

A. Solar energy
B. Nuclear energy
C. Hydroelectric energy
D. Fossil Fuels


Answer: C

What did not help the increase of greenhouse gas?

What did not help the increase of greenhouse gas?

A. fossil fuels
B. geothermal
C. solar power


Answer: C

True/False the fossil fuel power plants will not generate energy lest all types of fossil fuels are in reach.

True/False the fossil fuel power plants will not generate energy lest all types of fossil fuels are in reach.

Answer: False

What's NOT an extraction method of fossil fuels?

What's NOT an extraction method of fossil fuels?

A. Fracking
B. Rotary drilling
C. Digging correct
D. Directional drilling


Answer: B

Fossil fuels are renewable and will never run out.

Fossil fuels are renewable and will never run out.

A. True
B. False


Answer: B

Fossil fuels are derived from which of the following sources?

Fossil fuels are derived from which of the following sources?

A. Organic matter trapped in sedimentary rock
B. Non-organic matter trapped in metamorphic rock
C. Organic matter trapped in igneous rock
D. Organic matter on the crust's surface


Answer: A

Why do fossil fuels generate more power then wood for use in machines, for example...?

Why do fossil fuels generate more power then wood for use in machines, for example...?

A. Fossil fuels have a higher concentration of Hydrogen and Carbon
B. Fossil fuels are drier
C. Fossil fuels are easier to light
D. Fossil fuels are easier to transport


Answer: A

What can be NOT used to produce fossil fuel energy?

What can be NOT used to produce fossil fuel energy?

A. Oil
B. Coal
C. Natural Gas
D. Magma


Answer: D

Due to constant heat and pressure, buried plants turn in to

Due to constant heat and pressure, buried plants turn in to

A. Wood
B. Coal
C. Fertilizer
D. Oil


Answer: B

Which of these is not a fossil fuel

Which of these is not a fossil fuel

A. Coal
B. Oil
C. Natural gas
D. Minerals


Answer: D

Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?

Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?

A. Oil
B. Coal
C. Algae
D. Natural gases


Answer: C

The fossil fuel coal was produced from the remains of which organisms?

The fossil fuel coal was produced from the remains of which organisms?

A. Dead Plant Materials
B. Remains of a Human
C. Dead Marine Organisms
D. All of the above


Answer: A

In the production of hydroelectric power ____ energy is converted into electricity.

In the production of hydroelectric power ____ energy is converted into electricity.

A. Thermal
B. Magnetic
C. Mechanical
D. Chemical


Answer: C

What is another name of hydroelectric power

What is another name of hydroelectric power

A. Wind power
B. Water power
C. Nuclear power
D. Solar power


Answer: B

What is the world's most important source of energy?

What is the world's most important source of energy?

A. Fossil Fuels
B. Hydroelectric power
C. Solar energy
D. Salt


Answer: B

What percent of the electricity used in the United States is produced by hydroelectric power plants?

What percent of the electricity used in the United States is produced by hydroelectric power plants?

A. 35%
B. 20%
C. 50%
D. 65%


Answer: A

How is hydroelectric a danger to fish?

How is hydroelectric a danger to fish?

A. Reduces the quality of water
B. Dams obstructing fish migration
C. Change the fish habitat
D. All of the above


Answer: D

Where is the best place for hydroelectric power work?

Where is the best place for hydroelectric power work?

A. settle on a flat grassland
B. Bottom of tall mountain
C. Beach near the ocean


Answer: B

What would occur if a drought affected the area containing the reservoir?

What would occur if a drought affected the area containing the reservoir?

A. The energy would be stored
B. The energy would cease
C. The energy would continue to produce
D. The energy would be unaffected


Answer: B

What percent of electricity is produced from hydroelectric power?

What percent of electricity is produced from hydroelectric power?

A. 17%
B. 18%
C. 32 %
D. 70%


Answer: A

Which country is the biggest producer of hydropower?

Which country is the biggest producer of hydropower?

A. United States
B. Japan
C. China
D. Canada


Answer: C

Pick the answer that is NOT AN ADVANTAGE

Pick the answer that is NOT AN ADVANTAGE

A. Its renewable
B. Low maintenance costs
C. Its costs very little to make
D. Fuel is not burned


Answer: C

What force pulls water into the pen stock?

What force pulls water into the pen stock?

A. Gravity
B. Force of the volume of water
C. Turbine
D. Pressure


Answer: A

How does hydroelectric energy work?

How does hydroelectric energy work?

A. It uses the power of the sun to turn work
B. The water heats up and it turns into water vapor to power
C. Water turns a piece similar to a propeller to power
D. Water freezes and then is thrown to power it


Answer: C

Which of these are NOT used to make hydroelectric energy?

Which of these are NOT used to make hydroelectric energy? 

A. Dams
B. Streams of water
C. Stagnant Lakes
D. Reservoirs


Answer: C

Pick the answer that is NOT AN ADVANTAGE

Pick the answer that is NOT AN ADVANTAGE

A. Its renewable
B. Its costs very little to make
C. Low maintenance costs
D. Fuel is not burned


Answer: B

What is a con to hydroelectric?

What is a con to hydroelectric?

A. It provides flood control
B. it is a clean fuel source
C. There is a limited amount of reservoirs
D. Water is renewable


Answer: C

Rivers for hydro plants can cause a massive effect on nearby ecosystems.

Rivers for hydro plants can cause a massive effect on nearby ecosystems.

A. Damming
B. Filling
C. Draining
D. Flooding


Answer: A

Which of the following Energies are being described in the following: "This energy is stored in a power plant that controls floods"

Which of the following Energies are being described in the following: "This energy is stored in a power plant that controls floods"

A. Solar Energy
B. Wind Energy
C. Geothermal Energy
D. Hydroelectric Energy


Answer: D

Using the heat below the earth's surface is the use of

Using the heat below the earth's surface is the use of

A. Kinetic Energy
B. Wind Energy
C. Solar Energy
D. Geothermal energy


Answer: D

Where would you most likely find geothermal reservoirs:

Where would you most likely find geothermal reservoirs:

A. Hawaii
B. New Jersey
C. California
D. Oregon


Answer: A

Which of the following is NOT true about geothermal energy?

Which of the following is NOT true about geothermal energy?

A. Geothermal energy is renewable
B. Geothermal energy relies on the earth
C. Geothermal energy involves the movement of heat
D. Geothermal energy causes pollution


Answer: C

What is the name of the device that takes heat from the liquid and uses it to heat inside the home.

What is the name of the device that takes heat from the liquid and uses it to heat inside the home.

A. Heat Exchanger
B. Heat Transformer
C. Heat maker
D. Heat Producer


Answer: A

How long geothermal energy available?

How long geothermal energy available?

A. Half a year
B. Only in summer
C. Depending on the weather, mostly when it's sunny
D. Always (365 days a year)


Answer: D

Which is not a type of geothermal power plants?

Which is not a type of geothermal power plants?

A. heat pump
B. dry steam
C. Flash
D. Binary


Answer: A

Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage?

Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage?

A. Surface instability
B. Location specific
C. Renewable energy
D. Expensive


Answer: C

Which of the following is a NOT disadvantage of geothermal energy?

Which of the following is a NOT disadvantage of geothermal energy?

A. Gases are given off in the production of geothermal energy
B. Geothermal sites eventually cool down
C. Geothermal plants may release low levels of toxic materials
D. Geothermal power plants are expensive to maintain


Answer: D

Where is geothermal energy produced?

Where is geothermal energy produced?

A. On flat land
B. In the Earths interior
C. In the atmosphere
D. None of the Above


Answer: B

What kind of power source is geothermal energy?

What kind of power source is geothermal energy?

A. renewable power source
B. nonrenewable energy source
C. positron emission energy source
D. electron capture energy source


Answer: A

Which one of these is NOT in the process of creating geothermal energy?

Which one of these is NOT in the process of creating geothermal energy?

A. a hole is drilled about a mile underground.
B. steam is tapped
C. very hot water drives turbines
D. somebody turns the geothermal turbines to produce electricity.


Answer: D

The following is (are) type(s) of Geothermal resource

The following is (are) type(s) of Geothermal resource

A. Hydrothermal
B. Hot dry rock
C. Geo pressurised
D. All of the above


Answer: D

Geothermal energy is the thermal energy present:

Geothermal energy is the thermal energy present: 

A. On the surface of the planet
B. In the interior of the planet
C. On the surface of the ocean
D. On the Sun


Answer: B

What kind of energy transfer system occurs in a geothermal energy system?

What kind of energy transfer system occurs in a geothermal energy system?

A. convection
B. Kinetic
C. Conduction
D. Radiation


Answer: A

What is used to power the generators in geothermal power?

What is used to power the generators in geothermal power?

A. The core
B. Steam
C. The Earth's crust
D. None of the above


Answer: B

Which one is an example of heat from the earth?

Which one is an example of heat from the earth?

A. Geyres
B. Hot Spring
C. Lava
D. All of the above


Answer: D

What is an advantage of geothermal energy?

What is an advantage of geothermal energy?

A. It's the easiest out of all energies to access
B. It's clean
C. It's a stable resource
D. Scientists have the most research on it


Answer: A

Geothermal energy deals with:

Geothermal energy deals with:

A. Water
B. Air
C. Earth
D. both earth and water


Answer: C

Geothermal energy is the thermal energy present

Geothermal energy is the thermal energy present

A. On the surface of the earth
B. In the interior of the earth
C. On the surface of the ocean
D. None of the above


Answer: B

What is an advantage of having geothermal energy?

What is an advantage of having geothermal energy?

A. No fuel required
B. Gases can be released into the atmosphere
C. Earthquake
D. Steam limit


Answer: A

What is one type of environmental risk that comes from a Geothermal power plants?

What is one type of environmental risk that comes from a Geothermal power plants?

A. Earthquakes
B. Tornadoes
C. Landslides
D. Flooding


Answer: A

Geothermal are located in all states, EXCEPT:

Geothermal are located in all states, EXCEPT: 

A. Alaska
B. California
C. Mexico
D. Nevada


Answer: C

Which metal could be found in a geothermal reservoir?

Which metal could be found in a geothermal reservoir?

A. Arsenic
B. Boron
C. Nitrogen
D. Carbon


Answer: A

What make geothermal power be most useful?

What make geothermal power be most useful?

A. It can store electricity
B. energy produce ranks far among all renewable energies
C. It's doesn't depend on weather


Answer: B

What are the 3 types of geothermal power plants?

What are the 3 types of geothermal power plants?

A. dry steam, flash, and binary
B. wet steam, flashlight and binary
C. dry steam, dark, and secondary
D. Dry steam, flash, and tertiary


Answer: A

Which of these would be the best to place a geothermal pump?

Which of these would be the best to place a geothermal pump?

A. A place which is both volcanic and seismically active
B. A place which is only volcanic
C. A place which is very hot and wet
D. A place which is very cold


Answer: A

What is hot molten rock called?

What is hot molten rock called?

A. Magma
B. Lava
C. Igneous rocks
D. Volcano


Answer: A

Where can Geothermal Energy be found?

Where can Geothermal Energy be found?

A. Underwater
B. In a mountain
C. Where tectonic plates meet and underground
D. In the air


Answer: C

What is the waste for Geothermal heat?

What is the waste for Geothermal heat?

A. There is none
B. Steam
C. Dirt
D. Water


Answer: A

What causes wind?

What causes wind?

A. all of the above
B. rotation of the earth
C. sun heating the atmosphere
D. variations in the Earth's surface


Answer: A

What factor is important to ensure efficient wind power:

What factor is important to ensure efficient wind power:

A. Cool air over the water
B. If the land heats up faster than the water
C. If the warm air over the land rises
D. All of the above


Answer: D

Which of the following pollutants does wind-energy release into the environment?

Which of the following pollutants does wind-energy release into the environment?

A. Acid rain
B. Smog
C. Greenhouse-gases
D. None of the above


Answer: D

What does wind energy pollute

What does wind energy pollute

A. Nothing
B. water
C. air
D. all of the above


Answer: A

Ms. Dowd wants to power only her house using wind energy, what type of wind power would mostly likely be used?

Ms. Dowd wants to power only her house using wind energy, what type of wind power would mostly likely be used?

A. Utility scale wind
B. Small wind
C. Offshore wind
D. The wind power of chemistry


Answer: B

Is it better to have a bigger wind turbine or smaller?

Is it better to have a bigger wind turbine or smaller? 

A. Yes, bigger it is more wind it reaches
B. No, Bigger it is the less wind it reaches
C. Doesn't matter same amount of electricity is produced
D. None of the above


Answer: A

What type of technology creates wind energy?

What type of technology creates wind energy?

A. Solar panel
B. Turbines
C. Greenhouse gas
D. Photovoltaic (PV)


Answer: B

Which is not a form of wind energy?

Which is not a form of wind energy?

A. Horizontal axis wind turbines
B. Vertical axis wind turbines
C. solar panels
D. Wind power plants


Answer: C

Which of the following are disadvantages of wind energy ?

Which of the following are disadvantages of wind energy ?

A. Creates a lot of noise
B. Depends on the climate
C. Maintenance is expensive
D. All of the Above


Answer: D

What is a major wind power?

What is a major wind power?

A. Utility wind
B. Distributed or "small wind"
C. Offshore wind
D. All of the above


Answer: D

Which of these traits do wind turbines have in common with traditional power plants?

Which of these traits do wind turbines have in common with traditional power plants?

A. Produce greenhouse gas emissions
B. Ability to produce power at any time
C. Use an electrical generator
D. Use a fuel source


Answer: C

What are the benefits of wind power?

What are the benefits of wind power?

A. The wind is limitless
B. It is cheap to maintain
C. It does not produce greenhouse gases
D. All of the above


Answer: D

Which species is endangered by Wind Power

Which species is endangered by Wind Power

A. Birds
B. Humans
C. Cows
D. Fish


Answer: A

What is the device called that creates wind energy?

What is the device called that creates wind energy?

A. Blade
B. Fan
C. Wheel
D. Turbine


Answer: D

What causes wind?

What causes wind?

A. All of the above
B. Rotation of the Earth
C. The sun heating the atmosphere
D. Variations in the Earth's surface


Answer: A

Where is the most popular place in the US have wind turbines?

Where is the most popular place in the US have wind turbines?

A. Iowa
B. Texas
C. Washington
D. Oregon


Answer: B

What kind of energy does wind energy convert into mechanical energy?

What kind of energy does wind energy convert into mechanical energy? 

A. Kinetic Energy
B. Electric Energy
C. Wind Energy
D. Nuclear Energy


Answer: A

What are three major types of winder power?

What are three major types of winder power?

A. Utility Wind
B. Small wind
C. Offshore wind
D. All of the above


Answer: D

Wind turbines are connected to a/an __________ which generates electricity.

Wind turbines are connected to a/an __________ which generates electricity.

A. Rotor
B. Fan
C. Drive Shaft
D. Propeller


Answer: C

What is a group of wind turbines called?

What is a group of wind turbines called?

A. Wind farm
B. Energy Farm
C. Windmills
D. Turbine flock


Answer: A

Wind Energy requires all of the following, EXCEPT:

Wind Energy requires all of the following, EXCEPT: 

A. Generator
B. Air currents
C. Turbine blades
D. Small area of land


Answer: D

Which one of these reasons is a disadvantage of wind turbines?

Which one of these reasons is a disadvantage of wind turbines?

A. No fuel cost
B. No harmful polluting
C. Renewable energy
D. Very noisy


Answer: D

Wind energy is harnessed as ______ energy with the help of windmill or turbine.

Wind energy is harnessed as ______ energy with the help of windmill or turbine.

A. Mechanical
B. Solar
C. Electrical
D. Heat


Answer: A

Which of the following is one of the largest wind farms in the U.S?

Which of the following is one of the largest wind farms in the U.S?

A. Altamont Pass wind farm
B. Bent Tree Wind Farm
C. Cedar Ridge Wind Farm
D. Whispering Willow Wind Farm


Answer: A

Which is NOT a disadvantage of wind energy?

Which is NOT a disadvantage of wind energy?

A. creates pollution
B. wind farms are noisy
C. wind patterns fluctuate, which makes the energy fluctuate
D. it involves expensive investments


Answer: A

What is the difference between windmills and wind turbines?

What is the difference between windmills and wind turbines?

A. Windmills are made of wood
B. Windmills are in switzerland.
C. Wind turbines are found in the mountains.
D. They produce different energy.


Answer: D

How is the wind used to produce energy?

How is the wind used to produce energy?

A. The turbine uses kinetic energy from the wind to spin a generator
B. Wind panels absorb the wind
C. Generators capture the wind and uses it
D. All of the above


Answer: A

What does the generator do in the wind turbines?

What does the generator do in the wind turbines? 

A. Converts mechanical energy into electricity
B. Controls the direction of the blades
C. Carries electricity to transmission line
D. Controls the direction of the blade



Answer: C

How energy generated from wind energy?

How energy generated from wind energy?

A. Absorbs wind
B. Catches wind with turbine blades
C. Uses kinetic energy to generate energy
D. By blowing at it


Answer: A

What causes wind?

What causes wind?

A. The sun warming up the atmosphere
B. Variations in the surface of the planet
C. Rotation of the planet
D. All of the above


Answer: D

What caused an interest in developing ways to use alternative energy resources such as, wind turbines?

What caused an interest in developing ways to use alternative energy resources such as, wind turbines? 

A. Environmental factors
B. Help reduce costs of fossil fuels
C. Oil shortages
D. Debt


Answer: C

How exactly do wind turbines function?

How exactly do wind turbines function?

A. gather electrons and protons, absorbing them into the turbine and creating wind energy
B. wind turbine blades capture kinetic energy from the wind and turn it into mechanical energy, spinning a generator that creates electricity.
C. Turbines are positioned toward the direction of the wind, making it more likely to spin and generate energy
D. Kinetic energy is shot through a moderator creating molecular energy and with that, wind energy.


Answer: B

What is a disadvantage of wind energy?

What is a disadvantage of wind energy?

A. It is not efficient
B. It is expensive
C. Wind patterns not consistent
D. None of the Above


Answer: C

Which if these is NOT an advantage of wind energy?

Which if these is NOT an advantage of wind energy?

A. Low maintenance
B. Renewable Resource
C. Threat to wildlife
D. Does not take up space


Answer: C

Tiny particles in light are called

Tiny particles in light are called

A. Photons
B. Solar cells
C. Gamma rays
D. Protons


Answer: A

What does the word photovoltaic mean?

What does the word photovoltaic mean?

A. sun-powered
B. light-electricity
C. light-cells
D. Solar-energy


Answer: B

Which is not an advantage of solar energy?

Which is not an advantage of solar energy?

A. Renewable energy source
B. Weather dependent
C. Diverse Applications
D. Can last for decades


Answer: B

Which of the following are advantages of solar energy ?

Which of the following are advantages of solar energy ?

A. Renewable energy source
B. Reduced electricity bill
C. Low maintenance costs
D. All of the above


Answer: D

Which of the following sources of energy do not require a turbine to generate electricity?

Which of the following sources of energy do not require a turbine to generate electricity?

A. Geothermal
B. Nuclear
C. Solar


Answer: C

As on right now, why can't solar energy be a full alternative to electricity?

As on right now, why can't solar energy be a full alternative to electricity?

A. Not everywhere has the space to produce solar power plants
B. Very high cost that not every country can afford
C. You cannot obtain a sufficient amount of sunlight everyday
D. All of the Above


Answer: D

Why can't we make solar energy in some parts the planet?

Why can't we make solar energy in some parts the planet? 

A. because there is not enough space in certain countries
B. because solar energy is unevenly distributed across the planet
C. because some countries do not know what it is
D. because most people would prefer to build solar power plants


Answer: B

What form of energy do solar technologies use to generate electricity?

What form of energy do solar technologies use to generate electricity?

A. Static
B. Thermal
C. Chemical
D. Magnetic


Answer: B

Which element's atoms are used in solar cells to turn solar energy into electricity?

Which element's atoms are used in solar cells to turn solar energy into electricity?

A. Carbon
B. Silicon
C. Copper
D. Lead


Answer: B

What are solar panels made up of?

What are solar panels made up of?

A. Solar Cells
B. Plastic
C. Metal
D. Paper


Answer: A

How many photovoltaic cells does it take to power a phone

How many photovoltaic cells does it take to power a phone

A. 1
B. 3
C. 12
D. 6


Answer: C

Which is NOT a benefit of Solar Energy

Which is NOT a benefit of Solar Energy

A. It does not pollute the air
B. It saves water
C. Sunlight is not a constant variable
D. None of the above


Answer: C

Which particle gives the energy that is absorbed?

Which particle gives the energy that is absorbed? 

A. Photon
B. Electron
C. Proton
D. Nuclei


Answer: B

Which is NOT an advantage of solar energy?

Which is NOT an advantage of solar energy?

A. reduces electricity bills
B. weather dependent
C. doesn't cause greenhouse gases to be emitted
D. renewable clean power


Answer: B

In which two different ways can we use solar power?

In which two different ways can we use solar power?

A. heat and electricity
B. heat and energy
C. electricity and energy
D. none of the above


Answer: B

When are solar panels effective?

When are solar panels effective? 

A. Rainy weather
B. Sunny weather
C. Cloudy weather
D. Night Time


Answer: B

Solar rays that reach Earth's surface and aren't deviated are called:

Solar rays that reach Earth's surface and aren't deviated are called: 

A. Direct Irradiance
B. Diffuse irradiance
C. Reflected irradiance
E. Refracted irradiance


Answer: A

Which of the following is not true about solar energy?

Which of the following is not true about solar energy?

A. Solar energy produces greenhouse gases
B. Excess energy can be stored in batteries
C. You can produce solar energy on cloudy days
D. It has a low production in Winter


Answer: A

Why is open land required for solar energy?

Why is open land required for solar energy?

A. Large surface area is necessary to collect a useful amount of sunlight.
B. The amount of sunlight is varied on location and time.
C. It is too expensive to use smaller land.
D. Solar cells only work well in large amounts


Answer: A

Which one of these are an advantage of solar energy?

Which one of these are an advantage of solar energy? 

A. Less Pollution
B. Inconsistent energy
C. Less energy available
D. Solar energy unevenly distributed across planet.


Answer: A

When do you use photovoltaics?

When do you use photovoltaics?

A. If you use your cell-phone
B. If you use a solar-powered watch or calculator
C. If you use a solar-panel
D. Both B and C
E. All of the above


Answer: D

Which of these are not a disadvantage of solar energy?

Which of these are not a disadvantage of solar energy? 

A. It is very expensive to install.
B. Energy is dependent on weather and can be stopped by clouds.
C. It's energy cannot be stored affordably.
D. It raises electricity bills


Answer: D

Which U.S. state generates the most utility-scale solar power?

Which U.S. state generates the most utility-scale solar power?

A. California
B. Indiana
C. Texas
D. Kansas


Answer: A

What does the word photovoltaic mean?

What does the word photovoltaic mean?

A. Sun-powered
B. Solar-energy
C. Light-cells
D. light-electricity


Answer: C

About how long will it take to save money using Solar Energy?

About how long will it take to save money using Solar Energy?

A. 1 Year
B. 20 Years
C. 50 Years
D. 100 Years


Answer: B

Which of the following is NOT a technology used in concentrating solar power?

Which of the following is NOT a technology used in concentrating solar power?

A. Power tower
B. Linear fresnel
C. Cathode ray tube
D. Parabolic trough


Answer: C

What form of energy do concentrating solar power technologies use to generate electricity?

What form of energy do concentrating solar power technologies use to generate electricity?

A. Static
B. Chemical
C. Thermal
D. Magnetic


Answer: C

What is the process of the creation of solar energy called?

What is the process of the creation of solar energy called?

A. Solar panel
B. Photosynthesis
C. Photovoltaics
E. Electricity


Answer: C

Serial sampling for cardiac biomarkers is described as:

Serial sampling for cardiac biomarkers is described as:

A)Drawing blood samples periodically, usually at prescribed time intervals over the course of the patient's admission
B)Drawing blood samples randomly during the first four hours after admission to the facility
C)Making dilutions of each blood sample and analyzing them for the appropriate cardiac biomaker
D)Drawing a bloood sample once after admission to the facility


Answer: Drawing blood samples periodically, usually at prescribed time intervals over the course of the patient's admission

Infusion of Nesiritide is documented to act as a confounder for which of the following assays?

Infusion of Nesiritide is documented to act as a confounder for which of the following assays?

A)Myoglobin
B)Cardiac troponin T
C)Brain natriuretic peptide(BNP)
D)Atria natriuretic peptide(ANP)


Answer: Brain natriuretic peptide(BNP)

Pheochromocytoma is a tumor arising from which of the following?

Pheochromocytoma is a tumor arising from which of the following?

A)Bile caniculi
B)Follicular cells of the thyroid
C)Trophoblastic cells
D)Neurochromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla


Answer: Neurochromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla

Bile formed in the liver is stored in the:

Bile formed in the liver is stored in the:

A)Liver
B)Large intestine
C)Gall bladder
D)Duodenum


Answer: Gall bladder

Pituitary gigantism is associated with which of the following?

Pituitary gigantism is associated with which of the following?

A)Hypercorticolism
B)Growth (GH) excess
C)Growth (GH) deficiency
D)Hypeprolactinemia


Answer: Growth (GH) excess

Which of the following cardiac biomarkers is a better biomarker of plaque instability?

Which of the following cardiac biomarkers is a better biomarker of plaque instability?

A)CRP
B)Leptin
C)MPO
D)Lp-PLA2


Answer: MPO

Ranson's indicators of Severity in Acute Pancreatitis include all of the following tests EXCEPT:

Ranson's indicators of Severity in Acute Pancreatitis include all of the following tests EXCEPT:

A)BUN
B)Alanine transaminase
C)Glucose
D)Lactate dehydrogenase


Answer: Alanine transaminase

A blood sample for a tough drug level should be drawn

A blood sample for a tough drug level should be drawn

A)During the distribution phase of the drug
B)During phase I biotransformation
C)Shortly before drug administration
D)1.5 hours after drug administration


Answer: Shortly before drug administration

Which of the following compounds relaxes the smooth muscles of the bronchial passages?

Which of the following compounds relaxes the smooth muscles of the bronchial passages?

A)Theophylline
B)Acetaminophen
C)Phenytoin
D)Lithium


Answer: Theophylline

The marker for colorectal and pancreatic carcinoma is:

The marker for colorectal and pancreatic carcinoma is:

A)CA 15-3
B)CA 19-9
C)CA 27-29
D)CA-125


Answer: CA 19-9

Atherosclerosis is described as:

Atherosclerosis is described as:

A)Syndromes that encompass a continuum of clinical presentations ranging from unstable angina to non-Q-wave AMI
B)Hardening of the arteries that occurs over a period of many years due in part to the abnormal accumulation of lipids
C)A degenerative condition of the muscles
D)An acute-phase reactant whose concentration in the blood rises dramatically in response to nonspecific inflammatory stimuli.


Answer: Hardening of the arteries that occurs over a period of many years due in part to the abnormal accumulation of lipids

Which enzyme serves as the activator for the remaining pancreatic enzymes?

Which enzyme serves as the activator for the remaining pancreatic enzymes?

A)Phospholipase-A2
B)Chymotrypsin
C)Trypsin
D)Elastase


Answer: Trypsin

Which is a characteristic of unconjugated bilirubin?

Which is a characteristic of unconjugated bilirubin?

A)It reacts faster than conjugated bilirubin
B)Its not water-soluble
C)It is water-soluble
D)It has the same absorbance properties as conjugated bilirubin


Answer: Its not water-soluble

The pharmacological response of a drug is initiated when the drug is in which form?

The pharmacological response of a drug is initiated when the drug is in which form?

A)Bound to carbohydrates
B)Bound to proteins
C)Bound to fatty acids
D)Free


Answer: Free

Which of the following are characteristic of serum hormone binding globulin(SHBG)?

Which of the following are characteristic of serum hormone binding globulin(SHBG)?

A)Thyroid gland
B)Tightly bound to protein moiety, not biologically active and binds to testosterone
C)Hypothalamus
D)Loosely bound to protein moiety, is biologically active and binds to estrogen


Answer: Tightly bound to protein moiety, not biologically active and binds to testosterone

What is the clinical usefulness of measuring serum adiponectin?

What is the clinical usefulness of measuring serum adiponectin?

Answer: Plasma adiponectin levels may predict cardio vascular events

A patient with Addison's disease would present with which of the following?

A patient with Addison's disease would present with which of the following?

A)High blood sodium, low blood potassium levels
B)Low blood sodium, low blood potassium levels
C)Low blood sodium, high blood potassium levels
D)Normal blood sodium, low blood potassium levels


Answer: Low blood sodium, high blood potassium levels

A neoplasm that blocks the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas is:

A neoplasm that blocks the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas is:

A)Glucagonoma
B)Pancreatic cancer
C)Somatostatinoma
D)Insulinoma


Answer: Somatostatinoma

The term-δ-bilirubin(delta) refers to:

The term-δ-bilirubin(delta) refers to:

A)Direct-reacting bilirubin
B)Bilirubin tightly bound to albumin
C)Free unconjugated bilirubin
D)Water-soluble bilirubin


Answer: Bilirubin tightly bound to albumin

Lp(a) is considered a risk factor for developing atherosclerosis due to which of the following?

Lp(a) is considered a risk factor for developing atherosclerosis due to which of the following?

A)It competes with fibrinogen for binding sites, thus interfering with clot lysis and increasing the risk of acute myocardial infarction(AMI)
B)It activates complement
C)It competes with plasminogen for binding sites, thus interfering with clot lysis and increasing the risk of acute myocardial infarction(AMI)
D)It is produced by macrophages and expressed in atherosclerotic lesions


Answer: It competes with plasminogen for binding sites, thus interfering with clot lysis and increasing the risk of acute myocardial infarction(AMI)

Steady state of a drug is typically achieved after:

Steady state of a drug is typically achieved after:

A)Approximately seven half-lives
B)The drug is completely absorbed from the gut
C)The drug first begins to appear in the urine
D)Approximately two half-lives


Answer: Approximately seven half-lives

Lp (a) is considered a risk factor for developing atherosclerosis due to which of the following?

Lp (a) is considered a risk factor for developing atherosclerosis due to which of the following?

A)It is produced by macrophages and expressed in atherosclerotic lesions.
B)It competes with plasminogen for binding sites, thus interfering with clot lysis and increasing the risk of acute myocardial infarction (AMI)
C)It competes with fibrinogen for binding sites, thus interfering with clot lysis and increasing the risk of acute myocardial infarction (AMI)
D)It activates complement


Answer: It competes with plasminogen for binding sites, thus interfering with clot lysis and increasing the risk of acute myocardial infarction (AMI)

Insulin and C-peptide levels are important in diagnosing:

Insulin and C-peptide levels are important in diagnosing:

A)Pancreatic neoplasms
B)Somatostatinomas
C)Glucagonomas
D)Insulinomas


Answer: Insulinomas

Which of the following is the correct definition of first-pass effect of a drug?

Which of the following is the correct definition of first-pass effect of a drug?

A)The point when the total amount of drug in a human does not change over multiple loading does intervals
B)The time it takes for the plasma concentration of drug in the body to be reduced by 50%
C)When a drug is metabolized in the gut wall and liver before it reaches the systemic circulation
D)When a drug is excreted into the urine


Answer: When a drug is metabolized in the gut wall and liver before it reaches the systemic circulation

The following disease is a recessive disorder of copper metabolism, which results in the accumulation of copper in the liver.

The following disease is a recessive disorder of copper metabolism, which results in the accumulation of copper in the liver.

A)Hereditary hemochromatosis
B)Gilbert's disease
C)a1-antitrypsin
D)Wilson's disease


Answer: Wilson's disease

The enzyme system that catalyzes the conjugation of bilirubin is known as:

The enzyme system that catalyzes the conjugation of bilirubin is known as:

A)Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
B)Leucine aminopeptidase
C)Lactate dehydrogenase
D)Carbamyl phosphate synthetase
E)Uridine diphosphate (UDP) glucoronyl transferase


Answer: Uridine diphosphate (UDP) glucoronyl transferase

Elevated blood levels of pregnancy-associated plasma protein A(PAPP-A) may suggest which of the following?

Elevated blood levels of pregnancy-associated plasma protein A(PAPP-A) may suggest which of the following?

A)An S-T segment myocardial infarction (STEMI)
B)A presumptive diagnosis of heart failure in breathless patients
C)A low risk factor for developing an acute coronary syndrome(ACS)
D)The presence of an unstable ACS in patients without increased concentration of biomarkers of necrosis, such as cTn.



Answer: The presence of an unstable ACS in patients without increased concentration of biomarkers of necrosis, such as cTn.

Which of the following is a cause of hyperhomocysteinema?

Which of the following is a cause of hyperhomocysteinema?

A)Excess of one of the B complex vitamins
B)Deficiency of calcium
C)Deficiency of sodium
D)Deficiency of one of the B complex vitamins


Answer: Deficiency of one of the B complex vitamins

Thyroid hormones are derived from which o the following amino acids?

Thyroid hormones are derived from which o the following amino acids?

A)Histidine
B)Tyrosine
C)Phenylalanine
D)Methionine


Answer: Tyrosine

In the Jendrassik-Grof bilirubin, what converts purple azobilirubin to blue azobilirubin measured at 600nm?

In the Jendrassik-Grof bilirubin, what converts purple azobilirubin to blue azobilirubin measured at 600nm?

A)Alkaline tartrate
B)Hydrochloric acid
C)Caffeine
D)Methanol


Answer: Alkaline tartrate

Which of the following is a cause of hyperhomocysteinemia?

Which of the following is a cause of hyperhomocysteinemia?

A)Excess of one of the B complex vitamins
B)Deficiency of calcium
C)Deficiency of sodium
D)Deficiency of one of the B complex vitamins


Answer: Deficiency of one of the B complex vitamins

An autosomal recessive disorder of iron metabolism, which is characterized by excessive iron absorption and accumulation in various tissues in the body, is termed:

An autosomal recessive disorder of iron metabolism, which is characterized by excessive iron absorption and accumulation in various tissues in the body, is termed:

A)a1-antitrypsin
B)Dubin-Johnson
C)Hereditary hemochromatosis
D)Wilson's disease


Answer: Hereditary hemochromatosis

IL-6, protease-activated receptor signaling (PARS) and soluble CD 40 ligand function to:

IL-6, protease-activated receptor signaling (PARS) and soluble CD 40 ligand function to:

A)Resist plaque formation
B)Stabilize an embolus
C)Stabilize the one-cell thick endothelium
D)Induce adhesion of monocytes


Answer: Induce adhesion of monocytes

Which of the following best reflect the four correct pharmacological parameters that determine serum drug concentration?

Which of the following best reflect the four correct pharmacological parameters that determine serum drug concentration?

A)Ingestion, conjugation, metabolism, elimination
B)Equilibration, biotransformation, reabsorbtion, elimination
C)Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
D)Absorption, anabolism, bioactivation, excretion


Answer: Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

Which of the following statements summarizes the significance of CRP in the arterial wall?

Which of the following statements summarizes the significance of CRP in the arterial wall?

A)It predicts the severity of atherosclerosis and is able to bind o damaged membranes and lipids.
B)It has nothing to do with either arteriosclerosis or atherosclerosis
C)It predicts the severity of atherosclerosis but cannot bind to damaged membranes and lipids
D)It predicts the severity of arteriosclerosis


Answer: It predicts the severity of atherosclerosis and is able to bind to damaged membranes and lipids.

Which of the following is a metabolite of catecholamine?

Which of the following is a metabolite of catecholamine?

A)Estradiol 17-beta
B)Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
C)Homogentisic acid (HGA)
D)Monoiodothyronine


Answer: Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)

The first serological marker of Hepatitis B is:

The first serological marker of Hepatitis B is:

A)HBsAg
B)Anti-HBc
C)HBeAg
D)Anti-HBs


Answer: HBsAg

3, 5, 3'-triodothyronine is characterized as which of the following?

3, 5, 3'-triodothyronine is characterized as which of the following?

A)Secreted by the anterior pituitary gland in response to low blood levels of TSH
B)Used to make both T3 and T4 hormones
C)The most potent thyroid hormone
D)The least potent thyroid hormone


Answer: The most potent thyroid hormone

What is the most common cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia?

What is the most common cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia?

A)Hemolytic anemia
B)Dubin-Johnson
C)Neonatal physiologic jaundice
D)Gilert's disease
E)Bile duct obstruction


Answer: Neonatal physiologic jaundice

Pituitary secretion of ACTH is inhibited by elevated levels of:

Pituitary secretion of ACTH is inhibited by elevated levels of:

A)Cortisol
B)Progesterone
C)Aldosterone
D)Estradiol


Answer: Cortisol

Which of the following compounds is an anticonvulsant used to control tonic-clonic(grand mal) seizures?

Which of the following compounds is an anticonvulsant used to control tonic-clonic(grand mal) seizures?

A)Lithium
B)Phenytoin
C)Acetaminophen
D)Digoxin


Answer: Phenytoin

Which of the following is an example of an antiarrhythmic drug that has a metabolite with very similar same pharmacological action?

Which of the following is an example of an antiarrhythmic drug that has a metabolite with very similar same pharmacological action?

A)Phenobarbital
B)Caffeine
C)Quinidine
D)Procainamide


Answer: Procainamide

Which of the following compounds is the major metabolite of primidone?

Which of the following compounds is the major metabolite of primidone?

A)N-acetylprocainamide
B)Phenobarbital
C)Digoxin
D)Theophylline


Answer: Phenobarbital

Carbamazepine, primidone, and valproic acid are all examples of:

Carbamazepine, primidone, and valproic acid are all examples of:

A)Antidepressant drug
B)Antibiotics
C)Antiarrhythmic drugs
D)Antiepileptic drugs


Answer: Antiepileptic drugs

Which of the following is the principle method used to measure hormone levels in blood in many clinical laboratories?

Which of the following is the principle method used to measure hormone levels in blood in many clinical laboratories?

A)Immunoassays
B)Electrophoresis
C)Gas chromatography
D)Thin layer chromatography


Answer: Immunoassays

Which of the following would be classified as prehepatic jaundice?

Which of the following would be classified as prehepatic jaundice?

A)Hepatitis
B)Rotor syndrome
C)Cancer of the bile ducts
D)Congestive heart failure


Answer: Congestive heart failure

The albumin cobalt-binding test is used to measure which of the following?

The albumin cobalt-binding test is used to measure which of the following?

A)Albumin/globulin ration
B)Serum cobalt
C)Microalbumin
D)Ischemia modified albumin


Answer: Ischemia modified albumin

Which metabolite is most often increased in carcinoid tumors?

Which metabolite is most often increased in carcinoid tumors?

A)3-Methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG)
B)Homovanillic acid
C)Epinephrine
D)5-Hydroxyindolacetic acid (5-HIAA)


Answer: 5-Hydroxyindolacetic acid (5-HIAA)

IL-6, protease-activated receptor signaling(PARS) and soluble CD 40 ligand function to:

IL-6, protease-activated receptor signaling(PARS) and soluble CD 40 ligand function to:

A)Resist plaque formation
B)Stabilize an embolus
C)Stabilize the one-cell thick endothelium
D)Induce adhesion of monocytes


Answer: Induce adhesion of monocytes

Infusion of Nesiritide is documented to act as a confounder for which of the following assays?

Infusion of Nesiritide is documented to act as a confounder for which of the following assays?

A)Myoglobin
B)Brain natriuretic peptide
C)Atria natriuretic peptide(ANP)
D)Cardiac troponin T


Answer: Brain natriuretic peptide

A patient's low glucose, increased insulin, and increased C-peptide is caused by:

A patient's low glucose, increased insulin, and increased C-peptide is caused by:

A) Addison's disease
B) Injection of exogenous insulin
C) Glucagonoma
D) Insulinoma


Answer: Insulinoma

Complications of diabetes mellitus include all of the following EXCEPT:

Complications of diabetes mellitus include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Neuropathy
B) Hepatitis
C) Nephropathy
D) Heart disease and stroke


Answer: Hepatitis

Glycolysis is:

Glycolysis is:

A) The conversion of glucose into lactate or pyruvate and then CO₂ and H₂O
B) The conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage
C) The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources
D) The breakdown of glycogen to form glucose and other intermediate products


Answer: The conversion of glucose into lactate or pyruvate and then CO₂ and H₂O

All of the following are associated with gestational diabetes EXCEPT:

All of the following are associated with gestational diabetes EXCEPT:

A) Is defined as glucose intolerance during pregnancy
B) Is diagnosed using the same glucose tolerance criteria as in nonpregnant women
C) It converts to diabetes mellitus after pregnancy in 30-60% of patients
D) Associated with increased fetal risk


Answer: Is diagnosed using the same glucose tolerance criteria as in nonpregnant women

Which statement regarding glycosylated hemoglobin is TRUE?

Which statement regarding glycosylated hemoglobin is TRUE?

A) Levels below 7% indicate adequate regulation for 8-12 weeks prior to sampling
B) It has a sugar attached to the N-terminal valine of the β-chain of the hemoglobin molecule
C) Is dependent upon the time averaged blood glucose over the lifespan of the RBC
D) All of the above


Answer: All of the above

In a specimen collected for plasma glucose analysis, sodium fluoride:

In a specimen collected for plasma glucose analysis, sodium fluoride:

A) Prevents reactivity of non glucose reducing substances
B) Inhibits glycolysis
C) Serves as a coenzyme of hexokinase
D) Precipitates protein


Answer: Inhibits glycolysis

HDL cholesterol + LDL cholesterol + chylomicrons--->HDL. Which is NOT used as precipitating reagent for determining cholesterol?

HDL cholesterol + LDL cholesterol + chylomicrons--->HDL. Which is NOT used as precipitating reagent for determining cholesterol?

A) Heparin-manganese chloride
B) Phosphotungstate-Mn (II)
C) Dextran-sulfate-Mn (II)
D) Sulfosalicylic acid


Answer: Sulfosalicylic acid

Which of the following is FALSE concerning blood cholesterol concentrations?

Which of the following is FALSE concerning blood cholesterol concentrations?

A) Increased cholesterol is associated with diabetes mellitus
B) Cholesterol levels are unchanged when comparing results from fasting and non fasting blood
C) Increased cholesterol is associated with hyperthyroidism
D) Increased cholesterol is associated with nephrotic syndrome
E) Cholesterol levels decrease following strenuous exercise


Answer: Increased cholesterol is associated with hyperthyroidism

The National Cholesterol Education Program ATP III goal for desirable HDL cholesterol is:

The National Cholesterol Education Program ATP III goal for desirable HDL cholesterol is:

A) <200 mg/dL
B) <100 mg/dL
C) >40 mg/dL
D) ≥60 mg/dL


Answer: ≥60 mg/dL

Which of the following tests would be included in a routine lipid profile?

Which of the following tests would be included in a routine lipid profile?

A) Cholesterol, LDL-cholesterol, HDL cholesterol
B) Triglycerides, fatty acids, LDL-cholesterol
C) Cholesterol, LDL-cholesterol, HDL cholesterol, triglycerides
D) Cholesterol, triglycerides, phospholipids


Answer: Cholesterol, LDL-cholesterol, HDL cholesterol, triglycerides

The Friedewald formula for estimating LDL cholesterol should NOT be used when:

The Friedewald formula for estimating LDL cholesterol should NOT be used when:

A) HDL cholesterol is greater than 40 mg/dL
B) Total cholesterol is elevated based on the age and sex of the patient
C) Plasma shows no visible evidence of lipemia
D) Triglyceride is greater than 400 mg/dL


Answer: Triglyceride is greater than 400 mg/dL

The serum of a freshly drawn blood sample is slightly turbid. This is probably because:

The serum of a freshly drawn blood sample is slightly turbid. This is probably because:

A) Triglycerides only are increased
B) Cholesterol only is increased
C) Both are increased


Answer: Triglycerides only are increased

Hyperalbuminemia is caused by:

Hyperalbuminemia is caused by:

A) Gastroenteropathy
B) Liver disease
C) Burns
D) Dehydration syndromes


Answer: Dehydration syndromes

High serum total protein but low albumin is usually seen in:

High serum total protein but low albumin is usually seen in:

A) Multiple myeloma
B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Glomerulonephritis
D) Hepatic cirrhosis


Answer: Multiple myeloma

What is the clinical significance of testing for Transthyretin?

What is the clinical significance of testing for Transthyretin?

A) Levels are associated with glomerular injury in diabetic nephropathy
B) Low levels are associated with increased free cortisol
C) Low levels indicate compromised nutritional status
D) High levels are associated with an acute phase reaction


Answer: Low levels indicate compromised nutritional status

Which of the following serum proteins migrates with the beta globulins on cellulose acetate at pH 8.6?

Which of the following serum proteins migrates with the beta globulins on cellulose acetate at pH 8.6?

A) Haptoglobin
B) Transthyretin
C) Ceruloplasmin
D) Hemopexin


Answer: Hemopexin

Bromocresol Green (BCG) may be used in the dye-binding assay of:

Bromocresol Green (BCG) may be used in the dye-binding assay of:

A) Cholesterol
B)Albumin
C) Estrogen
D) Lipoprotein
E) 17-ketosteroids


Answer: Albumin

Which of the following conditions is usually associated with an acute inflammatory pattern?

Which of the following conditions is usually associated with an acute inflammatory pattern?

A) Hepatitis
B) Surgery
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Rheumatoid arthritis


Answer: Myocardial infarction

Mrs. Smith has the following chemistry results:

Mrs. Smith has the following chemistry results:

CK: moderately increased
LD: moderately increased
LD-1: increased

The probable diagnosis is:

A) Cholecystitis
B) Acute hepatitis
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Acute pancreatitis


Answer: Myocardial infarction

The most sensitive indicator of alcoholic liver disease is:

The most sensitive indicator of alcoholic liver disease is:

A) γGT
B) ALP
C) AST
D) ALT


Answer: γGT

A patient's CK-MB is reported as 18 µg/L and the total CK is 560 IU/L. What is the CK relative index (CKI)?

A patient's CK-MB is reported as 18 µg/L and the total CK is 560 IU/L. What is the CK relative index (CKI)?

A) 30.0%
B) 3.2%
C) 10.0%
D) 0.10%


Answer: 3.2%

Which of the following would NOT show an increase in alkaline phosphatase?

Which of the following would NOT show an increase in alkaline phosphatase?

A) Obstructive liver disease (hepatobiliary) rickets
B) Rickets
C) Osteoporosis
D) Hemolytic anemia


Answer: Osteoporosis

Cholinesterase catalyzes the conversion of:

Cholinesterase catalyzes the conversion of:

A) Choline to lecithin
B) Acetylcholine to choline and acetic acid
C) β-glycerophosphate to glycerol and PO₄⁻³
D) α-glycerophosphate to choline phosphate
E) Choline to NH₄⁺ and PO₄⁻³


Answer: Acetylcholine to choline and acetic acid

Levels of this enzyme are useful in the diagnosis of a genetic defect, which leads to increased apnea (difficulty breathing) after surgery using succinylcholine.

Levels of this enzyme are useful in the diagnosis of a genetic defect, which leads to increased apnea (difficulty breathing) after surgery using succinylcholine.

A) Leucine aminopeptidase
B) Cholinesterase
C) 5' nucleotidase
D) Acid phosphatase
E) Aldolase


Answer: Cholinesterase

Urea/BUN is produced from:

Urea/BUN is produced from:

A) Oxidation of pyrimidines
B) The catabolism of proteins and amino acids
C) Oxidation of purines
D) The breakdown of complex carbohydrates


Answer: The catabolism of proteins and amino acids

BUN is increased with:

BUN is increased with:

A) A high carbohydrate diet
B) A high protein diet
C) A low protein diet
D) It is not affected by diet


Answer: A high protein diet

Leukocyte reagent strips are used to detect leukocyte:

Leukocyte reagent strips are used to detect leukocyte:

A) Hydroxylase
B) Esterases
C) Phosphatase
D) Peroxidase


Answer: Esterases

Which condition is associated with massive proteinuria?

Which condition is associated with massive proteinuria?

A) Acute pyelonephritis
B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Chronic glomerulonephritis
D) Acute glomerulonephritis


Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

All of the following conditions are associated with hyperuricemia EXCEPT:

All of the following conditions are associated with hyperuricemia EXCEPT:

A) Primary "essential" overproduction of uric acid
B) Malignancy
C) Liver failure
D) Renal failure


Answer: Liver failure

Uric acid values are usually elevated in patients with leukemia because of the breakdown of:

Uric acid values are usually elevated in patients with leukemia because of the breakdown of:

A) Amino acids
B) Epinephrine
C) Proteins
D) Nucleic acids (adenine and guanine)


Answer: Nucleic acids (adenine and guanine)

A patient with syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) would present with which of the following laboratory results?

A patient with syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) would present with which of the following laboratory results?

A) Decreased serum sodium, increased osmolality, chloride, and increased urine sodium
B) Increased serum sodium, osmolality, decreased chloride, and increased urine sodium
C) Increased serum sodium, osmolality, chloride, and increased urine sodium
D) Decreased serum sodium, osmolality, chloride, and increased urine sodium


Answer: Decreased serum sodium, osmolality, chloride, and increased urine sodium

Measurement of sodium, potassium, and chloride are commonly performed in laboratories using which of the following?

Measurement of sodium, potassium, and chloride are commonly performed in laboratories using which of the following?

A) Ion selective electrodes
B) Gas chromatography
C) Photometry
D) Colorimetry


Answer: Ion selective electrodes

Chloride in sweat can be measured by which of the following techniques?

Chloride in sweat can be measured by which of the following techniques?

A) Photometry
B) Coulometry and amperometry
C) Gas sensing electrodes
D) pH electrodes


Answer: Coulometry and amperometry

Which of the following electrolyte levels best correlate with plasma osmolality?

Which of the following electrolyte levels best correlate with plasma osmolality?

A) Bicarbonate
B) Chloride
C) Calcium
D) Sodium


Answer: Sodium

Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in response to hyponatremia?

Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in response to hyponatremia?

A) Angiotensinogen is released from the kidney; angiotensinogen converts to angiotensin I; angiotensin I is converted to renin.
B) Renin is released from the kidney; renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin II; angiotensin II is converted to angiotensin I
C) Renin is released from the kidney; renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I; angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II
D) Angiotensin I is released from the kidney; angiotensin I converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin II; angiotensin II is converted to renin


Answer: Renin is released from the kidney; renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I; angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II

Which of the following conditions will cause an increase anion gap?

Which of the following conditions will cause an increase anion gap?

A) Hypoaldosteronism
B) Pulmonary fibrosis
C) Renal failure
D) Hyperkalemia


Answer: Renal failure

Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for metabolic acidosis?

Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for metabolic acidosis?

A) Diminished production of fixed acids
B) Increased retention of HCO₃⁻
C) Bicarbonate deficiency
D) Rapid and efficient elimination of organic acids


Answer: Bicarbonate deficiency

What is the normal ratio of bicarbonate to dissolved CO₂ in arterial blood?

What is the normal ratio of bicarbonate to dissolved CO₂ in arterial blood?

A) 20:1
B) 1:5
C) 1:10
D) 40:1


Answer: 20:1

An increase in temperature will result in a change to hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve. This change reflects which of the following?

An increase in temperature will result in a change to hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve. This change reflects which of the following?

A) A shift in the curve to the right
B) A downward shift in the curve
C) An upward shift in the curve
D) A shift in the curve to the left


Answer: A shift in the curve to the right

A patient's blood gas results are: pH=7.48; PCO₂=52 mmHg; HCO₃⁻=40 mEq/L; pO₂=98 mmHg. These results are consistent with which of the following?

A patient's blood gas results are: pH=7.48; PCO₂=52 mmHg; HCO₃⁻=40 mEq/L; pO₂=98 mmHg.
These results are consistent with which of the following?

A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis


Answer: Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis

A patient has the following arterial blood gas results: pH=6.55; pCO₂=26 mmHg; pO₂=99 mmHg; HCO₃⁻=22 mEq/L Which of the following is most likely to account for these results?

A patient has the following arterial blood gas results:
pH=6.55; pCO₂=26 mmHg; pO₂=99 mmHg; HCO₃⁻=22 mEq/L
Which of the following is most likely to account for these results?

A) Improper specimen collection
B) Hyperventilation
C) Hypkalemia
D) Hypoventilation


Answer: Hyperventilation

What is the most probably acid/base imbalance in the patient described below?

What is the most probably acid/base imbalance in the patient described below?

26-year-old male presents with the following signs and symptoms:

Extreme hysteria
Hyperventilating
Pulse 110 BPM

Lab data for ABGs:

pH=7.550
pCO₂=27 mmHg
HCO₃⁻=27 mEq/L
pO₂=98 mmHg

A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Respiratory acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis

Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

3,5,3'-triodothyronine is characterized as which of the following?

3,5,3'-triodothyronine is characterized as which of the following?

A) The least potent thyroid hormone
B) The most potent thyroid hormone
C) Used to make both T₃ and T₄ hormones
D) Secreted by the anterior pituitary gland in response to low blood levels of TSH


Answer: The most potent thyroid hormone

Unconjugated estriol (uE₃) is clinically useful for identifying which of the following?

Unconjugated estriol (uE₃) is clinically useful for identifying which of the following?

A) A fetus with Down syndrome
B) Molar pregnancy
C) Fetal death
D) Fetal anencephaly


Answer: A fetus with Down syndrome

Which of the following are characteristic of serum hormone binding globulin (SHBG)?

Which of the following are characteristic of serum hormone binding globulin (SHBG)?

A) Hypothalamus
B) Loosely bound to protein moiety, is biologically active and binds to estrogen
C) Thyroid gland
D) Tightly bound to protein moiety, not biologically active and binds to testosterone


Answer: Tightly bound to protein moiety, not biologically active and binds to testosterone

Which of the following is a metabolite of catecholamine?

Which of the following is a metabolite of catecholamine?

A) Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
B) Estradiol 17-beta
C) Homogentisic acid (HGA)
D) Monoiodothyronine


Answer: Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)

In a patient with suspected primary hyperthyroidism (Grave's disease), one would expect the following laboratory serum results: total T₄_____FT₄_____, and TSH______

In a patient with suspected primary hyperthyroidism (Grave's disease), one would expect the following laboratory serum results: total T₄_____FT₄_____, and TSH______

A) Increased, decreased, decreased
B) Increased, increased, decreased
C) Decreased, decreased, increased
D) Increased, decreased, increased


Answer: Increased, increased, decreased

Thyroid hormones are derived from which of the following amino acids?

Thyroid hormones are derived from which of the following amino acids?

A) Tyrosine
B) Histidine
C) Phenylalanine
D) Methionine


Answer: Tyrosine

The marker for colorectal and pancreatic carcinoma is:

The marker for colorectal and pancreatic carcinoma is:

A) CA 19-9
B) CA 15-3
C) CA-125
D) CA 27-29


Answer: CA 19-9

The gold standard for evaluating pancreatic exocrine function is:

The gold standard for evaluating pancreatic exocrine function is:

A) Fecal fat
B) Secretin/cholecystokinin
C) Pancreatic elastase
D) Insulin


Answer: Secretin/cholecystokinin

Slide #2 in the fecal fat procedure measures:

Slide #2 in the fecal fat procedure measures:

A) Soaps
B) Fatty acids, soaps and neutral fats
C) Soaps and neutral fats
D) Neutral fats (triglycerides)


Answer: Fatty acids, soaps and neutral fats

The most common cause of chronic pancreatitis is:

The most common cause of chronic pancreatitis is:

A) Pregnancy
B) Gall stone obstruction
C) Mumps
D) Chronic alcohol abuse


Answer: Chronic alcohol abuse

Insulin and C-peptide levels are important in diagnosing:

Insulin and C-peptide levels are important in diagnosing:

A) Pancreatic neoplasms
B) Glucagonomas
C) Somatostatinomas
D) Insulinomas


Answer: Insulinomas

Which disorder is related to mucus accumulation, recurrent infection with unusual pathogens, and increased inflammation in the lungs?

Which disorder is related to mucus accumulation, recurrent infection with unusual pathogens, and increased inflammation in the lungs?

A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Chronic pancreatitis
C) Acute pancreatitis
D) Pancreatic cancer


Answer: Cystic fibrosis

Serial sampling for cardiac biomarkers is described as:

Serial sampling for cardiac biomarkers is described as:

A) Drawing blood sample once after admission to the facility
B) Drawing blood samples periodically, usually at prescribed time intervals over the course of the patient's admission
C) Making dilutions of each blood sample and analyzing them for the appropriate cardiac biomarker
D) Drawing blood samples randomly during the first four hours after admission to the facility


Answer: Drawing blood samples periodically, usually at prescribed time intervals over the course of the patient's admission

High blood levels of adiponectin are associated with:

High blood levels of adiponectin are associated with:

A) Stabilizing endothelial cell structure
B) Increased risk of plaque rupture
C) Reduced risk of heart attacks
D) Increased risk of heart attacks


Answer: Reduced risk of heart attacks

NT-pro-BNP consist of 76 amino acids and is described as a:

NT-pro-BNP consist of 76 amino acids and is described as a:

A) A metabolite of BNP
B) The catabolic product of ANP
C) The storage form of BNP
D) The natriuretic peptide that is the inactive form


Answer: The natriuretic peptide that is the inactive form

In which of the following disorders is measurement of brain type natriuretic peptide (BNP) clinically useful?

In which of the following disorders is measurement of brain type natriuretic peptide (BNP) clinically useful?

A) Tachycardia
B) Acute myocardial infarction (AMIs)
C) Pericarditis
D) Congestive heart failure


Answer: Congestive heart failure

Which of the following is a cause of hyperhomocysteinemia?

Which of the following is a cause of hyperhomocysteinemia?

A) Deficiency of one of the B complex vitamins
B) Deficiency of sodium
C) Deficiency of calcium
D) Excess of one of the B complex vitamins


Answer: Deficiency of one of the B complex vitamins

Lp (a) is considered a risk factor for developing atherosclerosis due to which of the following?

Lp (a) is considered a risk factor for developing atherosclerosis due to which of the following?

A) It activates complement
B) It competes with fibrinogen for binding sites, thus interfering with clot lysis and increasing the risk of acute myocardial infarction (AMI)
C) It is produced by macrophages and expressed in atherosclerotic lesions
D) It competes with plasminogen for binding sites, thus interfering with clot lysis and increasing the risk of acute myocardial infarction (AMI)


Answer: It competes with plasminogen for binding sites, thus interfering with clot lysis and increasing the risk of acute myocardial infarction (AMI)

The reagent (accelerator) in the Jendrassik-Grof bilirubin procedure that makes indirect bilirubin water-soluble is:

The reagent (accelerator) in the Jendrassik-Grof bilirubin procedure that makes indirect bilirubin water-soluble is:

A) Caffeine
B) Methanol
C) Alkaline tartrate
D) Hydrochloric acid


Answer: Caffeine

The two most significant sources of error in accurate ammonia determinations are sample handling and:

The two most significant sources of error in accurate ammonia determinations are sample handling and:

A) Short shelf life of test reagents
B) Ammonia contamination in the laboratory
C) Inability to automate the test procedure
D) Need for age-dependant reference ranges


Answer: Ammonia contamination in the laboratory

Which is a characteristic of unconjugated bilirubin?

Which is a characteristic of unconjugated bilirubin?

A) It reacts faster than conjugated bilirubin
B) Its not water-soluble
C) It is water-soluble
D) It has the same absorbance properties as conjugated bilirubin


Answer: Its not water-soluble

Kernicterus is the abnormal accumulation of bilirubin in:

Kernicterus is the abnormal accumulation of bilirubin in:

A) Brain tissue
B) Heart tissue
C) Liver tissue
D) Blood
E) Kidney tissue


Answer: Brain tissue

A Model for End-Stage Liver disease staging system to predict prognosis in cirrhosis uses the following laboratory determinations EXCEPT:

A Model for End-Stage Liver disease staging system to predict prognosis in cirrhosis uses the following laboratory determinations EXCEPT:

A) Bilirubin
B) Creatinine
C) Aspartate transaminase
D) INR


Answer: Aspartate transaminase

Which of the following would be classified as prehepatic jaundice?

Which of the following would be classified as prehepatic jaundice?

A) Hepatitis
B) Cancer of the bile ducts
C) Rotor syndrome
D) Congestive heart failure


Answer: Congestive heart failure

Clearance (CL) of a drug is defined as which of the following?

Clearance (CL) of a drug is defined as which of the following?

A) The fraction of drug dose reaching the systemic circulation following administration by any route
B) The time required for an amount of drug in blood to decline to one-half its measured value
C) A measure of the apparent space the body has available to contain the drug
D) The rate of elimination by all routes normalized to the concentration of drug, in some biological fluids


Answer: The rate of elimination by all routes normalized to the concentration of drug, in some biological fluids

Which of the following compounds relaxes the smooth muscles of the bronchial passages?

Which of the following compounds relaxes the smooth muscles of the bronchial passages?

A) Theophylline
B) Lithium
C) Phenytoin
D) Acetaminophen


Answer: Theophylline

A blood sample for a trough drug level should be drawn:

A blood sample for a trough drug level should be drawn:

A) Shortly before drug administration
B) During phase I biotransformation
C) During the distribution phase of the drug
D) 1.5 hours after drug administration


Answer: Shortly before drug administration

Steady state of a drug is typically achieved after:

Steady state of a drug is typically achieved after:

A) The drug first begins to appear in the urine
B) Approximately two half-lives
C) The drug is completely absorbed from the gut
D) Approximately seven half-lives


Answer: Approximately seven half-lives